[ { "id": "yt001", "obj": "4.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician must provide remote assistance for an outdated Linux system using a Windows laptop. The solution requires viewing the user screen and interacting with their active session. What remote access protocol supports these requirements?", "explanation": "OBJ 4.9: VNC (Virtual Network Computing) is cross-platform and lets a Windows client view and interact with a Linux user’s active desktop session. VPN provides network access, not desktop control. SSH gives a command-line session, not the graphical desktop. RDP is Microsoft’s protocol and is not the default remote-desktop method on Linux.", "options": [ "VPN", "VNC", "SSH", "RDP" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 1 } ], "correct_short": "VNC" }, { "id": "yt002", "obj": "1.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician attempts to join a workstation to the corporate domain but receives an error indicating the domain cannot be located. The technician can successfully ping the server. What should the technician do to resolve this issue?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.6: A successful ping of the server proves IP, subnet mask, and gateway are working. Domain join uses the domain name, which requires DNS resolution, so a wrong DNS server is the most likely cause.", "options": [ "Modify the DNS server address", "Configure a static IP", "Adjust the subnet mask", "Update the default gateway" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 2 } ], "correct_short": "Modify the DNS server address" }, { "id": "yt003", "obj": "4.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A network technician discovers most company switches have reached end-of-life status and require replacement. What should the technician do first?", "explanation": "OBJ 4.2: Change-management process begins with submitting a change proposal so the organization can assess scope, impact, and cost. Management authorization, maintenance windows, and the actual replacement come later in the workflow.", "options": [ "Execute the hardware replacement", "Obtain management authorization", "Submit a change proposal", "Establish a maintenance window" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 3 } ], "correct_short": "Submit a change proposal" }, { "id": "yt004", "obj": "2.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "MFA authentication for a web application on a smartphone stopped functioning. The user last remembers it working before international travel. What should the technician verify first?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.1: Time-based one-time-password (TOTP) codes are bound to the device clock. International travel changes the time zone, which can desynchronize the code generator from the server and break MFA. Nothing else in the scenario changed.", "options": [ "Check the date and time configuration", "Install operating system updates", "Reinstall the application", "Contact the application developer" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 4 } ], "correct_short": "Check the date and time configuration" }, { "id": "yt005", "obj": "4.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What information does a Safety Data Sheet (SDS, formerly MSDS) provide?", "explanation": "OBJ 4.4: A Safety Data Sheet (SDS) — called a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) before the OSHA/GHS terminology update in 2015 — documents the hazardous chemicals contained in a product and how to handle spills, exposure, fires, and disposal. Both terms still appear in field materials; the modern standard is SDS.", "options": [ "UPS and battery system setup", "Hazard response procedure", "Configuration parameters", "Electrical specification" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 5 } ], "correct_short": "Hazard response procedure" }, { "id": "yt006", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A previously functional computer displays \"OS not found\" errors on startup. Only a USB drive, keyboard, and mouse are connected. What should the technician check first?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1: A connected USB drive is often listed ahead of the internal disk in the boot order. With no OS on the USB, the system reports \"OS not found.\" Adjust boot priority so the internal drive is tried first.", "options": [ "Execute data recovery utilities", "Reformat the disk using GPT", "Verify boot device priority", "Convert from UEFI to legacy BIOS" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 6 } ], "correct_short": "Verify boot device priority" }, { "id": "yt007", "obj": "2.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A security administrator trains staff on BitLocker To Go usage for removable storage. What is the primary reason for this training?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.6: BitLocker To Go specifically encrypts removable drives (USB sticks and external disks). Regular BitLocker, not BitLocker To Go, uses the TPM for internal-drive encryption.", "options": [ "Protect portable media with encryption in case of loss or theft", "Enable secure boot and firmware password to prevent tampering", "Require VPN connections to use hardware encryption modules", "Configure laptops to use TPM for hard drive encryption" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 7 } ], "correct_short": "Protect portable media with encryption in case of loss or theft" }, { "id": "yt008", "obj": "2.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What technology detects and documents entry into restricted facilities?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.1: Cameras both detect activity (motion/recording) and create documentation through video footage. Barriers, fencing, and card readers physically restrict access but do not, by themselves, detect or document who entered.", "options": [ "Vehicle barriers", "Security cameras", "Access card readers", "Perimeter fencing" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 8 } ], "correct_short": "Security cameras" }, { "id": "yt009", "obj": "1.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "An administrator receives notification that their supported OS will no longer receive security patches and updates. What most likely explains this communication?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.8: No more security patches almost always means the OS has reached end-of-life. Vendor support contracts expiring do not stop the vendor from releasing patches; a successor OS coexists with the current one until EOL.", "options": [ "Hardware manufacturer support has expired", "The operating system has reached end of life", "Built-in security features are being deprecated", "A new OS will be released soon" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 9 } ], "correct_short": "The operating system has reached end of life" }, { "id": "yt010", "obj": "1.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What is the best method to deploy custom OS images to 800 devices across four hardware vendors with two user-group types?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.9: A network-based deployment server (PXE, MDT, WDS, etc.) pushes a single image to hundreds of machines in parallel. Per-device copying via XCopy/Robocopy or per-device installation media does not scale to 800 endpoints.", "options": [ "Use XCopy to clone drives individually", "Use Robocopy to transfer files to each device", "Local installation media on each device", "Network-based deployment tool" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 10 } ], "correct_short": "Network-based deployment tool" }, { "id": "yt011", "obj": "2.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What type of social-engineering attack delivers unsolicited text messages to mobile devices?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.4: Smishing = SMS phishing. Vishing is voice phishing. Impersonation is pretending to be a trusted party. Spear phishing targets a specific individual but is not SMS-specific.", "options": [ "Impersonation", "Vishing", "Spear phishing", "Smishing" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 11 } ], "correct_short": "Smishing" }, { "id": "yt012", "obj": "2.10", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user accesses the company application portal but cannot reach a specific SaaS tool. Both use single sign-on. What should the technician suggest next?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.10: Cached credentials from a different identity can cause SSO to send the wrong session to a SaaS tool. A private/incognito session has no cached state and isolates the SSO handshake.", "options": [ "Reenroll the mobile device for MFA tokens", "Use private browsing to avoid session conflicts", "Bypass the SSO and authenticate directly to the application", "Factory reset the device" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 12 } ], "correct_short": "Use private browsing to avoid session conflicts" }, { "id": "yt013", "obj": "3.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician confirms malware infected several computers in an office. What should the technician do next?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.3: Step one of the malware-removal procedure is to disconnect the infected systems from the network so the infection cannot spread or exfiltrate data. Disabling System Restore, scanning, and user training come later.", "options": [ "Isolate the infected systems", "Train the user", "Disable system restore", "Update anti-malware and scan the computer" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 13 } ], "correct_short": "Isolate the infected systems" }, { "id": "yt014", "obj": "1.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What Linux command elevates privileges for an administrative task?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.8: `su` (substitute user) switches to another user account, commonly root, to run administrative commands. `runas` is the Windows equivalent. `cmcl` is not a real privilege-elevation command. `net user` is a Windows command for managing local accounts.", "options": [ "runas", "cmcl", "net user", "su" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 14 } ], "correct_short": "su" }, { "id": "yt015", "obj": "1.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "An application connects to a local database server but displays no data when launched. What command-line tool best troubleshoots this issue?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.2: `netstat` shows active TCP/UDP connections and listening ports, which is exactly what you need to confirm whether the app is reaching the database service. ipconfig is for IP info, nslookup is for DNS, curl is for HTTP(S).", "options": [ "ipconfig", "nslookup", "netstat", "curl" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 15 } ], "correct_short": "netstat" }, { "id": "yt016", "obj": "3.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "After a phishing attack caused a malware infection, a technician verified that endpoints have current signatures, EDR quarantined the malware on one system, and the machine was reimaged. What should the technician do next?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.3: The final step in the CompTIA malware-removal procedure is to educate the end user so the incident does not repeat. Containment, eradication, and recovery have already been completed.", "options": [ "Install a network security tool to block malicious downloads", "Discuss the incident with the user and provide security training", "Update router firmware to verify network traffic integrity", "Recommend additional security software" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 16 } ], "correct_short": "Discuss the incident with the user and provide security training" }, { "id": "yt017", "obj": "2.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What describes a security flaw exploited before a fix becomes available?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.4: A zero-day is a vulnerability or exploit that exists before the vendor has released a patch, so defenders have \"zero days\" of warning. Spoofing impersonates an identity. Brute force tries every password. DoS exhausts a resource.", "options": [ "Zero-day", "Spoofing", "Brute force", "Denial of service" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 17 } ], "correct_short": "Zero-day" }, { "id": "yt018", "obj": "1.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Where should a technician configure speech recognition in Windows?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.4: Speech recognition is an accessibility feature, so it lives under the Ease of Access (Accessibility) settings.", "options": [ "Time and language", "Personalization", "System", "Ease of access" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 18 } ], "correct_short": "Ease of access" }, { "id": "yt019", "obj": "1.7", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user cannot run an application that displays an error stating .NET Framework is required but not found. What is the best way to resolve this?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.7: .NET Framework ships as an optional Windows feature. Enable it through Control Panel → Programs and Features → Turn Windows features on or off rather than downloading from a third-party source.", "options": [ "Enable the dependency through Turn Windows features on or off", "Download the dependency from a third-party repository", "Ignore the dependency and install version 4 instead", "File the issue with the SOC team as a security risk" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 19 } ], "correct_short": "Enable the dependency through Turn Windows features on or off" }, { "id": "yt020", "obj": "4.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A photo-editing program has disabled features requiring a login the employee does not have. How can this be resolved?", "explanation": "OBJ 4.6: Many commercial creative apps cap the number of devices or seats per license. Once that limit is exceeded, features become unavailable until the license/subscription is upgraded or seats are freed.", "options": [ "License agreement", "VPN", "Application repair", "Program reinstallation" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 20 } ], "correct_short": "License agreement" }, { "id": "yt021", "obj": "2.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician deploys mobile devices and needs to prevent data access if devices are lost without user awareness. What best prevents unauthorized access?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.1: Because the user is unaware the device is missing, they cannot manually trigger a remote wipe. Encryption protects the data at rest even if the device is disassembled and the storage chip is read elsewhere — protection that does not depend on the user reacting. Biometrics gate the OS but not raw storage; application wipe and geofencing require the user to act or the device to be online.", "options": [ "Encryption", "Application wipe", "Geofencing", "Facial recognition" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 21 } ], "correct_short": "Encryption" }, { "id": "yt022", "obj": "1.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What is the quickest way to upgrade from Windows 10 to Windows 11 without losing data?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.9: An in-place upgrade installs the new OS while preserving installed apps, user files, and settings. Imaging and clean installs wipe the disk; gpupdate is unrelated (refreshes Group Policy).", "options": [ "gpupdate", "Image deployment", "Clean install", "In-place upgrade" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 22 } ], "correct_short": "In-place upgrade" }, { "id": "yt023", "obj": "4.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Technicians fail to document user contact information, device asset tags, and issue descriptions in tickets. What should have been implemented?", "explanation": "OBJ 4.1: SOPs define the steps a technician must follow for each type of call, including what to document on every ticket. SLAs define response times; KB articles describe how to fix specific problems.", "options": [ "Service level agreements (SLAs)", "Call categories", "Standard operating procedures (SOPs)", "Knowledge-based articles" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 23 } ], "correct_short": "Standard operating procedures (SOPs)" }, { "id": "yt024", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "An application runs increasingly slowly over time without errors or crashes. What tool should the technician use to start troubleshooting?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1: Resource Monitor shows live CPU, memory, disk, and network usage per process — the right starting point for a slowdown with no crashes. Reliability History focuses on app crashes/installs.", "options": [ "Reliability History", "Computer Management", "Resource Monitor", "Disk Defragmenter" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 24 } ], "correct_short": "Resource Monitor" }, { "id": "yt025", "obj": "1.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which file system type does Linux use?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.8: ext4 is the dominant native Linux file system. APFS is Apple’s, exFAT is the cross-platform format common on external media, and NTFS is Microsoft’s.", "options": [ "APFS", "exFAT", "NTFS", "ext4" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 25 } ], "correct_short": "ext4" }, { "id": "yt026", "obj": "2.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What method makes drive data unrecoverable while allowing the drive to be reused?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.8: A low-level (full) format overwrites every sector, destroying the data while keeping the drive usable. Deleting partitions leaves the data behind, EFS encrypts but does not erase, and degaussing permanently destroys the drive.", "options": [ "Deleting the partition", "Implementing EFS", "Performing a low-level format", "Degaussing the drive" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 26 } ], "correct_short": "Performing a low-level format" }, { "id": "yt027", "obj": "3.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "After a mobile OS upgrade, the corporate email application will not open. Restarting the device did not help. What most likely resolves the issue?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.4: After a major OS update, apps often need their own update to match the new platform APIs. Updating the email app is the most direct fix for a previously working app that no longer launches.", "options": [ "Update the email application", "Register the device with MDM", "Install a third-party email client", "Clear the cache" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 27 } ], "correct_short": "Update the email application" }, { "id": "yt028", "obj": "2.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Users report an unsecured network broadcasting the same name as the legitimate wireless network. They can access the internet but not the file server. What best describes this?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.4: An attacker has stood up an unauthorized AP that mimics the company SSID. Clients that join it get internet access (as a lure) but cannot reach internal resources, which is the tell-tale sign.", "options": [ "Unreachable DNS", "Virtual LAN (VLAN) misconfiguration", "Incorrect IP address", "Rogue wireless access point" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 28 } ], "correct_short": "Rogue wireless access point" }, { "id": "yt029", "obj": "2.10", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician implements a solution for a business internet policy that prohibits accessing unauthorized websites based on categorization. What is this referred to as?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.10: Content filtering (typically via a proxy or secure web gateway) classifies sites by category and blocks the disallowed ones. A traditional firewall filters by IP/port; Group Policy Editor manages Windows policy, not web categories.", "options": [ "Secure management access", "Group Policy Editor", "Content filtering", "Firewall" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 29 } ], "correct_short": "Content filtering" }, { "id": "yt030", "obj": "2.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Users increasingly share smartphone passcodes with each other. Management wants a more secure screen-lock method. What technology should the technician use?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.1: Biometrics such as facial recognition cannot be verbally shared with a coworker the way a passcode or pattern can. Device encryption protects data at rest, not screen access.", "options": [ "Pattern", "Facial recognition", "Device encryption", "Multi-factor authentication" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 30 } ], "correct_short": "Facial recognition" }, { "id": "yt031", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A laptop has network-drive connectivity issues in the office. A technician remotely connects and applies a fix. The next day the network drive is disconnected again. What should the technician do next?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1: A recurring problem requires re-investigation to find the underlying cause. Premature escalation, dumping documentation on the user, or stalling the ticket all skip the diagnostic step.", "options": [ "Connect remotely to investigate the cause", "Send the user documentation on fixing the issue", "Escalate the ticket", "Keep the ticket open until the next day, then close it" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 31 } ], "correct_short": "Connect remotely to investigate the cause" }, { "id": "yt032", "obj": "4.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What provides information to employees about permitted activities when using organizational resources?", "explanation": "OBJ 4.6: An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) defines what users may and may not do with company resources. An MNDA is a mutual nondisclosure agreement; DRM controls copying of digital content; an EULA is the license terms for installed software.", "options": [ "AUP", "MNDA", "DRM", "EULA" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 32 } ], "correct_short": "AUP" }, { "id": "yt033", "obj": "1.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician needs to install operating systems on a large number of workstations. Which method is best?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.9: A network-based image deployment server (PXE/MDT/WDS) installs the OS on many machines in parallel. Per-device media or manual installs do not scale.", "options": [ "Physical media", "Mountable ISOs", "Manual installation", "Network-based deployment" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 33 } ], "correct_short": "Network-based deployment" }, { "id": "yt034", "obj": "4.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user working from home cannot access work files on their company laptop. What should a technician configure to fix the network-access issue?", "explanation": "OBJ 4.9: A VPN extends the corporate network to the remote laptop, giving the user access to internal file shares as if they were in the office.", "options": [ "Wide area network", "Wireless network", "Proxy network settings", "VPN" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 34 } ], "correct_short": "VPN" }, { "id": "yt035", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician troubleshoots a service that starts momentarily and then stops at certain points in the process. What tool should the technician use to determine the root cause?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1: Service start, stop, and error events are logged in the System log inside Event Viewer, which is the right place to find why a service exits.", "options": [ "Event Viewer", "Task Manager", "Internet Options", "Process Explorer" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 35 } ], "correct_short": "Event Viewer" }, { "id": "yt036", "obj": "2.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What describes an application publisher including undisclosed additional software in an installation package?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.3: Bundled \"junkware\" that ships alongside a legitimate installer is classified as a Potentially Unwanted Program. It is not strictly malicious like a virus, trojan, or ransomware, but it is unwanted by the user.", "options": [ "Virus", "Ransomware", "Potentially unwanted program (PUP)", "Trojan" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 36 } ], "correct_short": "Potentially unwanted program (PUP)" }, { "id": "yt037", "obj": "1.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician needs to map a shared drive from a command-line interface. What command should the technician use?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.2: `net use` maps a network share to a local drive letter from the Windows command line. pathping/tracert test routing; nslookup queries DNS.", "options": [ "pathping", "nslookup", "net use", "tracert" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 37 } ], "correct_short": "net use" }, { "id": "yt038", "obj": "2.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A company smartphone has an unrecognized password-cracking application installed. What should the help-desk team deploy to prevent further unauthorized installations?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.6: Mobile Device Management can enforce an allow/deny list of installable applications across the fleet. Group Policy does not apply to mobile devices, and anti-malware may not flag a \"tool\" that is not technically malicious.", "options": [ "Configure group policy", "Implement privileged access management", "Install anti-malware", "Deploy an MDM" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 38 } ], "correct_short": "Deploy an MDM" }, { "id": "yt039", "obj": "2.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What is used in addition to a password to implement multi-factor authentication?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.1: MFA combines two different categories of factor. A password, PIN, date of birth, and math problem are all \"something you know.\" A code sent to a phone is \"something you have,\" which makes it a true second factor.", "options": [ "Sending a code to the user’s phone", "Verifying the user’s date of birth", "Prompting the user to solve a math problem", "Requiring the user to enter a PIN" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 39 } ], "correct_short": "Sending a code to the user’s phone" }, { "id": "yt040", "obj": "4.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician prepares to replace batteries in a rack-mounted UPS. Power is off and batteries are fully discharged. The technician must remove the heavy battery modules from the bottom of the rack. What should the technician do to complete this task safely?", "explanation": "OBJ 4.4: UPS battery modules are heavy and stored low; proper lifting technique (bend the knees, keep the back straight, get help) prevents injury.", "options": [ "Ensure the fire-suppression system is ready to activate", "Use appropriate lifting techniques", "Place the batteries in anti-static bags", "Wear a face mask to filter out harmful fumes" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 40 } ], "correct_short": "Use appropriate lifting techniques" }, { "id": "yt041", "obj": "2.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician sets up a surveillance system for a customer who wants LAN access to the system’s web interface via its IP address. What should the technician use to prevent external login attempts from the internet?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.9: Port forwarding is the mechanism that controls which internal services are reachable from the internet. By configuring port forwarding to expose only LAN-side access (and not forwarding the camera’s management port from the WAN), the technician keeps external login attempts from reaching the device. Subnetting, static IPs, and content filtering do not gate inbound internet access to a local device.", "options": [ "Port forwarding", "Subnetting", "Static IP", "Content filtering" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 41 } ], "correct_short": "Port forwarding" }, { "id": "yt042", "obj": "2.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician needs to configure laptops so that only administrators can enable virtualization technology if needed. What should the technician configure?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.6: Virtualization is toggled in firmware (BIOS/UEFI). A BIOS password prevents non-admins from entering setup to change it.", "options": [ "BIOS password", "Guest accounts", "Screen lock", "Auto-run setting" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 42 } ], "correct_short": "BIOS password" }, { "id": "yt043", "obj": "4.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What file type would a desktop support technician most likely use to automate tasks for Windows user login?", "explanation": "OBJ 4.8: Batch files (.bat) run native Windows shell commands and are the simplest scripting choice for logon automation. .sh is a Linux shell script; .py requires Python; .js is typically for browser scripting.", "options": [ ".bat", ".sh", ".py", ".js" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 43 } ], "correct_short": ".bat" }, { "id": "yt044", "obj": "4.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician uses AI to draft a proposal about new software benefits. The draft contains factually incorrect information. What best describes this scenario?", "explanation": "OBJ 4.6: When a generative AI produces confident-sounding but factually wrong output, that output is called a hallucination. It is a property of the model, not a misuse or copyright issue.", "options": [ "Privacy", "Hallucination", "Inappropriate use", "Plagiarism" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 44 } ], "correct_short": "Hallucination" }, { "id": "yt045", "obj": "2.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What describes an attack where an attacker sets up a rogue access point and tricks users into connecting to it instead of the legitimate network?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.4: An evil-twin AP impersonates a legitimate SSID to lure clients into a malicious network where their traffic can be intercepted. Tailgating is physical; shoulder surfing is visual; stalkerware is spyware on a device.", "options": [ "Stalkerware", "Evil twin", "Tailgating", "Shoulder surfing" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 45 } ], "correct_short": "Evil twin" }, { "id": "yt046", "obj": "2.10", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user experiences issues with outdated images while browsing websites. What setting should a technician use to correct this issue?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.10: The browser is caching old images; clearing the browser cache via Internet Options resolves it.", "options": [ "Administrative tools", "Defender", "Internet Options", "Ease of Access" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 46 } ], "correct_short": "Internet Options" }, { "id": "yt047", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Every time a user opens a specific spreadsheet, their computer becomes temporarily unresponsive and the title bar shows \"Not Responding.\" What would a technician most likely inspect?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1: A spreadsheet that has grown very large will consume substantial RAM when opened. Checking file size against current memory utilization explains the \"Not Responding\" stall.", "options": [ "Anti-malware log", "Workstation repair options", "Bandwidth status reported in Task Manager", "File size and memory utilization" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 47 } ], "correct_short": "File size and memory utilization" }, { "id": "yt048", "obj": "2.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user frequently misplaces their Windows laptop and is concerned about theft. What built-in technology enables full-drive encryption?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.6: BitLocker encrypts the entire system drive. EFS only encrypts individual files/folders the user marks. NTFS provides permissions, not encryption. Active Directory is an authentication/directory service.", "options": [ "Active Directory", "NTFS", "EFS", "BitLocker" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 48 } ], "correct_short": "BitLocker" }, { "id": "yt049", "obj": "3.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user’s smartphone is not staying charged throughout the day. The smartphone charges fully every night. Which of the following should a technician review first?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.4: The battery charges fully, so the charger and battery are fine. Excessive battery drain during the day points to one or more apps consuming resources in the background.", "options": [ "Storage", "End of software support", "Charger wattage", "Background apps" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 49 } ], "correct_short": "Background apps" }, { "id": "yt050", "obj": "2.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A customer is unable to open some files on their system. Each attempt produces a message that the file is encrypted. Which of the following best describes this issue?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.3: Ransomware encrypts user files and demands payment for the decryption key. Key loggers record keystrokes, phishing steals credentials, and crypto miners abuse CPU/GPU — none of those encrypt the user’s files.", "options": [ "Key logger", "Ransomware", "Phishing", "Crypto miner" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 50 } ], "correct_short": "Ransomware" }, { "id": "yt051", "obj": "2.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "An organization is experiencing an increased number of issues. A technician notices applications that are not installed by default, and users report frequent prompts for software licenses. Which of the following would the security team most likely do to remediate the root cause?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.6: Users would not be able to install unauthorized software if they were not local administrators. Removing them from the local admin group eliminates the install capability at the source.", "options": [ "Deploy an internal PKI to filter unencrypted web traffic", "Remove users from the local admin group", "Implement stronger controls to block suspicious websites", "Enable stricter User Account Control settings in Windows" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 51 } ], "correct_short": "Remove users from the local admin group" }, { "id": "yt052", "obj": "1.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A support specialist needs to decide whether to install a 32-bit or 64-bit OS architecture on a new computer. Which of the following specifications will help the specialist determine which OS to use?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.9: A 32-bit OS can address only ~4 GB of RAM. Any system with more than 4 GB needs a 64-bit OS to use the additional memory.", "options": [ "CPU model", "Disk drive type", "Ethernet speed", "RAM amount" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 52 } ], "correct_short": "RAM amount" }, { "id": "yt053", "obj": "2.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which of the following prevents forced vehicle entry into a building?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.1: Bollards are short, sturdy posts placed in front of entrances to physically stop vehicles. Lighting, cameras, and access cards do not block a moving vehicle.", "options": [ "PIV cards", "Motion-activated lighting", "Video surveillance", "Bollards" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 53 } ], "correct_short": "Bollards" }, { "id": "yt054", "obj": "2.6", "qtype": "Multiple Answer", "question": "A technician is assigned to offboard a user. Which of the following are common tasks on an offboarding checklist? Choose two.", "explanation": "OBJ 2.6: When an employee is offboarded, the priority is cutting off their access to company resources. Deactivating their key fobs blocks physical access to the facility, and suspending their email account blocks access to company communications (while keeping the mailbox available for forwarding or archival). The laptop and its hard drive, network port, and MAC address all belong to assets the company will retain or reissue.", "options": [ "Quarantine the hard drive in the user’s laptop.", "Deactivate the user’s key fobs for door access.", "Purge all PII associated with the user.", "Suspend the user’s email account.", "Turn off the network ports underneath the user’s desk.", "Add the MAC address of the user’s computer to a blocklist." ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 54 } ], "correct_picks": [ "Deactivate the user’s key fobs for door access.", "Suspend the user’s email account." ] }, { "id": "yt055", "obj": "1.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A company would like to deploy baseline images to new computers as they are started up on the network. Which of the following boot processes should the company use for this task?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.9: PXE (Preboot eXecution Environment) lets a machine boot from a network deployment server and pull an image automatically — ideal for \"on the network\" image deployment.", "options": [ "ISO boot", "Secure boot", "USB", "PXE" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 55 } ], "correct_short": "PXE" }, { "id": "yt056", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user has been adding data to the same spreadsheet for years. After adding a significant amount of data, they are now unable to open it. Which of the following should the technician do to resolve it?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1: A very large spreadsheet must be loaded into RAM. Adding more memory lets the file open. Reverting would lose the new data; defragmentation and faster network do not solve a memory shortage.", "options": [ "Revert the spreadsheet to the last restore point", "Increase the amount of RAM", "Defragment the storage", "Upgrade the network" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 56 } ], "correct_short": "Increase the amount of RAM" }, { "id": "yt057", "obj": "1.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A help-desk technician is deploying a workstation onto a secure network segment. Why must the workstation be configured with a static IP rather than left to obtain an address automatically?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.6: A secure network segment commonly disables DHCP so every host's address can be tracked, audited, and pinned to a known asset. With no DHCP server replying, the workstation has to be assigned a static address — which is why engineering hands the technician the specific IP, mask, gateway, and DNS values to enter. Upstream allow-lists / NAC posture checks may also exist, but those policies don't change the fact that without DHCP the host needs static config to talk to anything.", "options": [ "Only specific DNS servers are allowed outbound access", "The network allow list is set to specific addresses", "DHCP services are not enabled for this subnet", "NAC servers allow security updates to be installed" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 57 } ], "correct_short": "DHCP services are not enabled for this subnet" }, { "id": "yt058", "obj": "2.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician is using a credential manager to safeguard a large number of credentials. Which of the following is important for using this application?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.6: A credential manager (KeePass, LastPass, Dashlane, etc.) is gated by a single master password. If that password is weak, every credential in the vault is exposed.", "options": [ "Restricted login times", "Secure master password", "TPM module", "Windows lock screen" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 58 } ], "correct_short": "Secure master password" }, { "id": "yt059", "obj": "2.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which of the following methods involves requesting user approval via push notification to verify the user’s identity?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.1: Authenticator apps (Microsoft Authenticator, Google Authenticator, Duo) can send a push notification asking the user to approve or deny a login attempt. OTP, hardware tokens, and SMS deliver a code but no push prompt.", "options": [ "One-time password", "Hardware token", "SMS code", "Authenticator app" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 59 } ], "correct_short": "Authenticator app" }, { "id": "yt060", "obj": "4.9", "qtype": "Multiple Answer", "question": "A user wants to be able to work from home but does not want to be responsible for bringing the company’s equipment back and forth. Which of the following would allow the user to remotely access and use a Windows machine at the main office? Select TWO.", "explanation": "OBJ 4.9: RDP gives the user the remote desktop session on the office machine, and the VPN provides a secure tunnel from home to the office network so RDP can reach the workstation. SSH is command-line only; Spice is for Linux VMs; IPv4 is an addressing scheme.", "options": [ "Spice", "SSH", "RDP", "VPN", "IPv4" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 60 } ], "correct_picks": [ "RDP", "VPN" ] }, { "id": "yt061", "obj": "1.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A company wants to use a single OS for its workstations and servers with no license fee. Which of the following operating systems would most likely meet these needs?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.8: Linux is free and can run on both workstations and servers. Windows and macOS have licensing costs; Chrome OS is not a general-purpose server platform.", "options": [ "Windows", "macOS", "Chrome OS", "Linux" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 61 } ], "correct_short": "Linux" }, { "id": "yt062", "obj": "3.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user is attempting to open an HD video on a mobile phone from a popular streaming website. The user receives connection-timeout errors. The signal indicator shows two bars next to 3G. Which of the following is most likely the cause?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.4: Two bars of 3G is far below what is needed to stream HD video, so the connection times out. Storage and Wi-Fi would not cause a streaming-specific timeout, and the site itself is reachable.", "options": [ "User does not have Wi-Fi enabled", "The website subscription has run out", "Insufficient bandwidth", "The mobile device storage is full" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 62 } ], "correct_short": "Insufficient bandwidth" }, { "id": "yt063", "obj": "4.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician needs to remove RAM from retired workstations and use it to upgrade other workstations. Which of the following actions should the technician most likely take?", "explanation": "OBJ 4.4: RAM modules are highly sensitive to ESD. Transport them in anti-static bags to prevent damage between systems.", "options": [ "Demagnetize memory for security", "Use anti-static bags", "Plug the power supply into the ground in each workstation", "Install memory modules in pairs" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 63 } ], "correct_short": "Use anti-static bags" }, { "id": "yt064", "obj": "4.7", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A customer’s computer does not have an active network connection. A technician exhausts their knowledge troubleshooting the issue. The customer expresses frustration about the time involved. What should the technician do?", "explanation": "OBJ 4.7: When you have exhausted your knowledge, the professional response is to escalate to someone with more expertise while keeping the customer informed about next steps.", "options": [ "Escalate the issue to a senior team member and provide next steps to the customer", "Dismiss the customer and reschedule another troubleshooting session", "Interrupt the customer and close the support ticket", "Maintain a positive attitude and continue to ask questions about the scope of the issue" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 64 } ], "correct_short": "Escalate the issue to a senior team member and provide next steps to the customer" }, { "id": "yt065", "obj": "3.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A company executive is at a major music festival with many attendees and is having trouble accessing a work email account. The email app is not downloading messages and gets stuck during connection. Which of the following is most likely causing the disruption?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.4: Tens of thousands of phones competing for a small number of nearby cell towers saturate the radio capacity, and individual connections stall.", "options": [ "The phone has no storage space", "Company firewalls are configured to block remote access", "Too many devices in the same area", "The festival organizers prohibit internet usage and have blocked the signal" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 65 } ], "correct_short": "Too many devices in the same area" }, { "id": "yt066", "obj": "2.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A company recently transitioned to a cloud-based productivity suite and wants to secure the environment from external threat actors. Which of the following is the most effective method?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.1: Cloud login portals are reachable by anyone on the internet, so a stolen password alone should not grant access. MFA adds a second factor that an external attacker is unlikely to possess.", "options": [ "Multi-factor authentication", "Encryption", "Backups", "Strong passwords" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 66 } ], "correct_short": "Multi-factor authentication" }, { "id": "yt067", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user reports getting a blue screen of death at least twice a day. Which of the following should a technician use to determine the cause?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1: Crash events and the offending driver or service are logged in Event Viewer (System log), which is the right tool for diagnosing a recurring BSOD.", "options": [ "Event Viewer", "Performance Monitor", "System Information", "Device Manager" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 67 } ], "correct_short": "Event Viewer" }, { "id": "yt068", "obj": "1.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician is configuring a Windows 10/11 Pro workstation so that multiple existing local users can connect over Remote Desktop. After enabling Remote Desktop in Settings, which tool grants these specific users RDP access?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.4: Granting Remote Desktop access means adding the user accounts to the local Remote Desktop Users group. Computer Management → Local Users and Groups → Groups → Remote Desktop Users → Add is the canonical GUI path on Windows 10/11 Pro. The Settings → System → Remote Desktop → 'Select users' button is a shortcut for the same operation, but among these options Computer Management is the tool. The User Accounts applet (control userpasswords2 / netplwiz) creates and manages local accounts but does not place them in the RDP group. Firewall rules for RDP are toggled automatically when Remote Desktop is enabled. Ease of Use (Ease of Access) is unrelated.", "options": [ "Firewall", "Computer Management", "User Accounts", "Ease of Use" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 68 } ], "correct_short": "Computer Management" }, { "id": "yt069", "obj": "4.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician must map a network drive on legacy equipment running an end-of-life Windows OS. Which of the following is the best script to map the drive using Windows commands?", "explanation": "OBJ 4.8: A batch file runs native Windows commands such as `net use`, which is exactly what is needed to map the drive.", "options": [ ".sh", ".vbs", ".js", ".bat" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 69 } ], "correct_short": ".bat" }, { "id": "yt070", "obj": "3.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "After clicking on an advertisement, a user reports the browser is slow. A technician sees a large number of outbound connections from the machine. Which of the following actions should the technician take?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.3: A spike in outbound connections suggests the machine is infected and possibly part of a botnet. Disconnect it from the network first to stop further spread, then run remediation.", "options": [ "Update the firewall", "Run anti-virus", "Reboot", "Quarantine the machine" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 70 } ], "correct_short": "Quarantine the machine" }, { "id": "yt071", "obj": "1.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Various alerts on a user’s Windows 11 laptop are continuously interrupting the user during video conferencing. Which of the following should a support technician do to resolve this?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.4: Windows 11 notification settings include a Do Not Disturb / Focus mode that silences alerts during meetings without having to disable each one individually.", "options": [ "Use multiple sound output devices for the various source applications", "Disable each notification in the order it appears", "Configure the sound options in Control Panel", "Configure the notification settings to enable Do Not Disturb" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 71 } ], "correct_short": "Configure the notification settings to enable Do Not Disturb" }, { "id": "yt072", "obj": "1.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Company employees do not have assigned workspaces and regularly work at different computers and physical locations. Which of the following should the company implement to maintain data security and minimize the amount of user data that needs to be transferred?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.6: Roaming profiles store each user’s desktop, documents, favorites, and application settings on a network server. The profile follows the user to whichever workstation they sign into.", "options": [ "Central certificates", "Cloud email", "Portable drives", "Roaming profiles" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 72 } ], "correct_short": "Roaming profiles" }, { "id": "yt073", "obj": "2.10", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user downloads an application that includes a browser plugin designed to automatically prompt for a one-time password. The plugin installs without errors, but the first time the user visits the site, the prompt does not open and the user cannot access the site. Which of the following browser settings should the user configure?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.10: Browser plugins are managed in the Extensions panel. The extension may be installed but disabled or missing a required permission.", "options": [ "Certificates", "Trusted sources", "Extensions", "Proxy settings" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 73 } ], "correct_short": "Extensions" }, { "id": "yt074", "obj": "1.7", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician is installing a cloud-based productivity suite and keeps getting an error stating that the installation is unavailable. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the technician try first?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.7: Subscription productivity suites cap the number of devices per license. Hitting the cap produces an installation-unavailable error. Verify the seat count before doing anything destructive.", "options": [ "Reinstall the suite", "Download an open-source alternative", "Check the license device limit", "Update the mobile OS" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 74 } ], "correct_short": "Check the license device limit" }, { "id": "yt075", "obj": "2.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user wants to dispose of a failed hard drive in a way that ensures data is unrecoverable. Which of the following is the best at-home method?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.8: A drill that punches through the platters physically destroys the data and is a realistic at-home option. Formatting and deleting leave recoverable data behind; degaussing requires a specialized machine.", "options": [ "Formatting", "Low-level formatting", "Deleting", "Drilling" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 75 } ], "correct_short": "Drilling" }, { "id": "yt076", "obj": "4.7", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A customer’s laptop will not turn on. The customer is panicking because the laptop contains family pictures that can never be replaced. Which of the following communication techniques is most important for the technician to demonstrate?", "explanation": "OBJ 4.7: When a customer is panicking, calm, confident reassurance is the priority communication technique. SLAs, pricing, and dress code do not directly de-escalate the situation.", "options": [ "Provide the customer with the appropriate SLA", "Inform the customer of replacement options at an increased cost", "Project confidence and maintain a positive attitude", "Be dressed in appropriate business attire" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 76 } ], "correct_short": "Project confidence and maintain a positive attitude" }, { "id": "yt077", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Answer", "question": "A technician completes the installation of an OS on a new PC, which appears successful. After removing the USB installation drive and restarting, the system reports \"No OS.\" What should the technician do next to resolve it? Select TWO.", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1: Verify the boot order in UEFI/BIOS so the internal disk is selected, and reseat the SATA cable in case the brand-new build has a loose drive connection.", "options": [ "Reinstall the OS from a new ISO image", "Check the UEFI device settings in the BIOS", "Restart in recovery mode and troubleshoot", "Install the storage drive drivers", "Reseat the SATA cable" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 77 } ], "correct_picks": [ "Check the UEFI device settings in the BIOS", "Reseat the SATA cable" ] }, { "id": "yt078", "obj": "1.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "An employee tries to connect a company laptop to an airport’s Wi-Fi. Once connected, a pop-up with the airport logo appears, which the employee quickly closes. The internet connection then does not work. Which of the following should the help-desk technician suggest?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.6: Public Wi-Fi typically requires the user to accept terms or sign in through a captive-portal pop-up. Closing it before completing it leaves the device without internet access.", "options": [ "Look for a wall socket RJ45", "Contact the airport IT department", "Tell the employee that company policy prohibits connection to public Wi-Fi", "Reconnect to the network and read the pop-up message" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 78 } ], "correct_short": "Reconnect to the network and read the pop-up message" }, { "id": "yt079", "obj": "1.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician installs a Bluetooth headset for a user. During testing, the sound continues to come from the computer’s speaker. The technician verifies the headset shows up in Device Manager. Which of the following would the technician most likely do to fix the issue?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.5: Windows continues to play audio through the previous default device until the new device is selected. Setting the Bluetooth headset as default routes sound to it.", "options": [ "Update the drivers for the wireless headset", "Replace the battery on the headset and try again", "Verify the sound is not muted in Control Panel", "Change the headset to be the default audio device" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 79 } ], "correct_short": "Change the headset to be the default audio device" }, { "id": "yt080", "obj": "2.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which of the following is a protocol that provides authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) for network services?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.2: RADIUS centralizes AAA for network services such as Wi-Fi and VPN. Kerberos is the Active Directory ticket protocol. TKIP and WPA3 are wireless encryption mechanisms.", "options": [ "RADIUS", "Kerberos", "TKIP", "WPA3" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 80 } ], "correct_short": "RADIUS" }, { "id": "yt081", "obj": "1.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user application only works with a legacy version of the OS, which is reaching end of life. For security reasons, the company is upgrading to the current OS. Which of the following is the most efficient way to complete the migration while keeping the application accessible?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.8: Install the new OS as the host and run the legacy OS in a VM only when the legacy app is needed. Terminal/bare-metal servers are heavier; multi-boot forces the user to reboot to switch.", "options": [ "Terminal server", "Bare-metal server", "Multi-boot", "Virtualization" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 81 } ], "correct_short": "Virtualization" }, { "id": "yt082", "obj": "2.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician needs to disable the guest logon on domain-joined desktop machines. Which of the following should the technician use?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.5: A domain-level Group Policy can disable the guest account across every joined computer in one place. MMC and MSConfig only act on the local machine.", "options": [ "Group Policy", "Firewall", "MMC", "MSConfig" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 82 } ], "correct_short": "Group Policy" }, { "id": "yt083", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "After using a third-party disk-optimization package, a technician restarts a laptop and gets \"No operating system found.\" The BIOS still recognizes the SSD. Which of the following should the technician do next?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1: Aggressive disk optimizers can corrupt or remove the Master Boot Record. Booting from install media and running the MBR repair restores the boot sector.", "options": [ "Update BitLocker in the BIOS", "Replace the CMOS battery", "Boot from installation media and repair the MBR", "Isolate the system from the network" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 83 } ], "correct_short": "Boot from installation media and repair the MBR" }, { "id": "yt084", "obj": "3.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user reports that their corporate phone is lost. Which of the following protects the data on the phone from unauthorized access?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.5: A remote wipe issued through MDM erases the device the next time it connects, so the data cannot be recovered by whoever has the phone.", "options": [ "Password manager", "Degausser", "Anti-virus", "Remote wipe" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 84 } ], "correct_short": "Remote wipe" }, { "id": "yt085", "obj": "2.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user receives a push notification to approve or deny a login request when using MFA. Which of the following describes this security measure?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.1: Push-based approval prompts are delivered through an authenticator app paired with the user’s account. OTPs are codes; zero-trust is an architecture; PAM controls privileged credentials.", "options": [ "One-time password", "Zero-trust model", "Authenticator application", "Privileged access management" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 85 } ], "correct_short": "Authenticator application" }, { "id": "yt086", "obj": "4.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "An administrator is investigating a technical outage. Management wants information that includes a summary of the outage and actions taken. Which of the following documentation should the administrator provide?", "explanation": "OBJ 4.1: An incident report captures the timeline, impact, and remediation of a specific event — exactly what management needs. KB articles describe fixes; SOPs describe procedures.", "options": [ "Knowledge-based article", "NDA", "Incident report", "SOP" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 86 } ], "correct_short": "Incident report" }, { "id": "yt087", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician is troubleshooting a print spooler that repeatedly fails to start on a Windows 11 desktop. The technician determines the root cause is required dependencies failing to run. Which of the following tools is the technician using?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1: The Services snap-in exposes each service’s Dependencies tab, which lists what must be running for the service to start.", "options": [ "Processes", "Services", "Startup", "Performance" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 87 } ], "correct_short": "Services" }, { "id": "yt088", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user’s computer is running slowly. Task Manager shows memory utilization at 97% while CPU, GPU, and network are not stressed. Which of the following would the technician most likely do?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1: High memory pressure with low CPU/network points to too many open apps consuming RAM. Closing programs frees memory and restores responsiveness.", "options": [ "Clear the browser cache", "Update the network connection", "Close unnecessary programs", "Delete temporary internet files" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 88 } ], "correct_short": "Close unnecessary programs" }, { "id": "yt089", "obj": "2.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A malicious actor uses multiple endpoints spread across multiple locations to target a single endpoint. Which of the following describes this threat?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.4: A Distributed Denial of Service attack uses many distributed sources to overwhelm a single target. On-path attacks intercept traffic; SQL injection abuses input fields; brute force tries every password.", "options": [ "On-path", "SQL injection", "Brute force", "DDoS" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 89 } ], "correct_short": "DDoS" }, { "id": "yt090", "obj": "1.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user is switching from Linux to Windows and tries to migrate data from an external USB disk. When the user connects the cable to the Windows machine, Windows reports that the device must be formatted before it can be used. The disk works correctly on the Linux machine. Which of the following should the user do?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.9: exFAT is readable and writable by both Linux and Windows, so it is the right file system for cross-platform USB media.", "options": [ "Configure Windows Firewall", "Replace the cable", "Apply a firmware update", "Format the drive as exFAT" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 90 } ], "correct_short": "Format the drive as exFAT" }, { "id": "yt091", "obj": "1.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "An administrator must rename the administrator account on a Windows desktop. Which of the following tools is best for this task?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.3: Local Users and Groups (lusrmgr.msc) manages local accounts, including renaming the built-in administrator account.", "options": [ "gpedit", "Event Viewer", "Device Manager", "Local Users and Groups" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 91 } ], "correct_short": "Local Users and Groups" }, { "id": "yt092", "obj": "3.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "The battery on a user’s smartphone discharges quickly when the user travels. The smartphone was replaced two weeks ago. Which of the following should the technician do first?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.4: The phone is two weeks old, so hardware replacement is premature. Identify which apps are draining the battery before taking more drastic action.", "options": [ "Replace the battery with a higher capacity", "Provide an external battery to extend usage", "Ensure the charging port is working", "Look for applications that are reporting the highest utilization" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 92 } ], "correct_short": "Look for applications that are reporting the highest utilization" }, { "id": "yt093", "obj": "2.6", "qtype": "Multiple Answer", "question": "A technician is securing a newly deployed workstation that only assigned users can access. Which of the following techniques should the technician do to prevent unauthorized users from accessing the workstation? Select TWO.", "explanation": "OBJ 2.6: A screen-saver lock blocks access when the user steps away from the desk, and a BIOS password blocks anyone from changing firmware settings or boot order at power-on. Defragmenting, SSH, disabling iCloud, and the firewall do not directly restrict who can physically access and log into the workstation.", "options": [ "Defragment the hard drive", "Enable SSH", "Enable screen-saver lock", "Disable iCloud", "Enable the firewall", "Configure a BIOS password" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 93 } ], "correct_picks": [ "Enable screen-saver lock", "Configure a BIOS password" ] }, { "id": "yt094", "obj": "2.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "An international traveler is concerned about others accessing the contents of their smartphone if it is lost or stolen. The traveler has enabled biometrics. Which of the following additional security measures further reduces the risk of unauthorized data access?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.6: Encryption protects the data even if the storage chip is removed from the device, which biometrics alone cannot prevent. Location tracking and backups do not stop someone from reading data; a PIN is weaker than the biometric they already have.", "options": [ "Device encryption", "PIN code", "Location tracking", "Remote backups" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 94 } ], "correct_short": "Device encryption" }, { "id": "yt095", "obj": "4.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A small-town clerk wants to work from home on a town-issued laptop. The clerk needs to access documents on the town-hall server. Which of the following solutions does the technician need to set up?", "explanation": "OBJ 4.9: A VPN extends the town-hall network to the clerk’s laptop, which lets them reach internal file shares. RDP/VNC are remote-desktop tools; SSH is command-line.", "options": [ "VNC", "RDP", "VPN", "SSH" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 95 } ], "correct_short": "VPN" }, { "id": "yt096", "obj": "4.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A company is implementing the 3-2-1 backup rule. Which of the following should the company do?", "explanation": "OBJ 4.3: The 3-2-1 rule: keep 3 copies of the data, stored on 2 different types of media, with 1 copy off-site.", "options": [ "Perform both full and differential backups", "Test the backup integrity every three weeks", "Keep all backup media on site for fast recovery", "Use at least two different types of media" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 96 } ], "correct_short": "Use at least two different types of media" }, { "id": "yt097", "obj": "1.7", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A team member shares a link to an online slide deck so others can add to the presentation. The link does not work for any of the other team members. Which of the following should the team check first?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.7: Cloud documents enforce per-link sharing permissions. If the link is configured only for the owner, recipients cannot open it. Check the share/permission settings first.", "options": [ "Version control", "Web browser capabilities", "Viewing and sharing permissions", "License management" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 97 } ], "correct_short": "Viewing and sharing permissions" }, { "id": "yt098", "obj": "1.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician receives a computer with a non-responsive touchpad. The touchpad does not appear to be physically damaged. Which of the following tools should the technician use to check the touchpad driver?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.3: Device Manager lists hardware devices and their drivers, including the driver status for input devices like the touchpad.", "options": [ "System Configuration", "Device Manager", "Event Viewer", "Local Users and Groups" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 98 } ], "correct_short": "Device Manager" }, { "id": "yt099", "obj": "1.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user is renaming a text file to an XML file. After renaming, File Explorer shows the name as document.xml, but the properties still show the file as a text document. Which of the following controls enables the user to correctly change the file type?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.3: By default, Windows hides extensions for known file types, so a \"rename\" only changes the visible name, not the extension. Turn off \"Hide extensions for known file types\" in Folder Options to actually rename the extension.", "options": [ "Personalization", "Format", "Indexing", "File extension display (hide extensions)" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 99 } ], "correct_short": "File extension display (hide extensions)" }, { "id": "yt100", "obj": "1.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician is unable to upgrade a desktop computer from Windows 10 to Windows 11. Which of the following is most likely preventing the upgrade?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.9: Windows 11 requires TPM 2.0. A missing or disabled TPM will block the upgrade. Disk speed, refresh rate, and RAM latency do not gate Windows 11 eligibility.", "options": [ "Missing TPM module", "Slow HDD", "Low refresh rate", "High RAM latency" ], "sources": [ { "source": "youtube:KisYdBWOsy0", "qnum": 100 } ], "correct_short": "Missing TPM module" }, { "id": "c2-os-01", "obj": "1.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which of the following Microsoft Windows editions is the minimum requirement to support BitLocker drive encryption and joining a Windows Domain?", "correct_short": "Windows 10 Pro", "explanation": "OBJ 1.1: Windows 10 Pro is the minimum edition that supports joining a domain and using BitLocker, as Windows Home editions lack these advanced networking and security features.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 1 } ], "options": [ "Windows 10 Pro", "Windows 10 N", "Windows 10 Home", "Windows 11 Home" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-os-02", "obj": "1.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "An IT technician is working in a Linux terminal and needs to switch to the superuser (root) account. Which of the following commands should they use?", "correct_short": "su", "explanation": "OBJ 1.8: The 'su' (switch user) command is used to switch to the specified user's account, and when used without a username, it prompts for the password to switch to the root account.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 2 } ], "options": [ "root", "chmod", "su", "sudo" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-os-03", "obj": "1.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which partition style must be used on a fixed disk to natively support a single partition larger than 2 TB and up to 128 primary partitions in Windows?", "correct_short": "GUID Partition Table (GPT)", "explanation": "OBJ 1.9: The GUID Partition Table (GPT) partitioning scheme overcomes the limitations of MBR by natively supporting more than four primary partitions (up to 128 in Windows) and partition sizes over 2 TB.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 3 } ], "options": [ "GUID Partition Table (GPT)", "FAT32", "Dynamic Disk", "Master Boot Record (MBR)" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-os-04", "obj": "1.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician suspects that a user's Windows 10 operating system is experiencing issues due to corrupt system files. Which of the following commands will immediately scan and attempt to repair protected system files?", "correct_short": "sfc /scannow", "explanation": "OBJ 1.2: The 'sfc /scannow' command runs the System File Checker utility to immediately scan the integrity of all protected Windows system files and replace incorrect or damaged versions.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 4 } ], "options": [ "bootrec /fixboot", "chkdsk /f", "diskpart", "sfc /scannow" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-os-05", "obj": "1.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which macOS feature can be activated by pressing COMMAND+SPACE and is used to quickly locate files, folders, and applications on the system?", "correct_short": "Spotlight Search", "explanation": "OBJ 1.8: Spotlight Search is the macOS search feature activated by clicking the magnifying glass or pressing COMMAND+SPACE to find almost anything on the system.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 5 } ], "options": [ "Spotlight Search", "FileVault", "Finder", "Mission Control" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-os-06", "obj": "1.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which of the following file systems is the proprietary default used on modern Apple Mac workstations and laptops to natively support journaling, snapshots, permissions, and encryption?", "correct_short": "APFS", "explanation": "OBJ 1.8: The Apple File System (APFS) is the proprietary file system used by macOS that supports modern features like journaling, snapshots, permissions, and built-in encryption.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 6 } ], "options": [ "ext4", "NTFS", "exFAT", "APFS" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-os-07", "obj": "1.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician needs to search inside a specific text file on a Linux machine for a specific word or pattern. Which command line tool should they use?", "correct_short": "grep", "explanation": "OBJ 1.8: In Linux, the 'grep' command is used specifically to search inside text files for specific words or patterns, whereas 'find' searches for the files themselves.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 7 } ], "options": [ "grep", "ls", "cat", "find" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-os-08", "obj": "1.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A system administrator wants to deploy a customized Windows image to multiple computers simultaneously over the network. Which firmware feature must the client network adapters support to initiate this boot method?", "correct_short": "Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)", "explanation": "OBJ 1.9: Network booting requires the client network adapters and firmware to be PXE-compliant (Preboot Execution Environment) to locate the installation server via DHCP.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 8 } ], "options": [ "UEFI Secure Boot", "Multiboot Manager", "Trusted Platform Module (TPM) 2.0", "Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-os-09", "obj": "1.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "An IT specialist has made changes to a Group Policy Object in an Active Directory domain. Which command should they run on a client computer to apply these new policies immediately?", "correct_short": "gpupdate /force", "explanation": "OBJ 1.2: The 'gpupdate /force' command is used to apply new or changed Group Policy settings to a computer and account profile immediately, overriding the default 90-minute refresh cycle.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 9 } ], "options": [ "gpresult /r", "sfc /scannow", "net user", "gpupdate /force" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-os-10", "obj": "1.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user wants to ensure their macOS system has a reliable local backup of user data and previous versions of files. Which built-in macOS utility should they configure?", "correct_short": "Time Machine", "explanation": "OBJ 1.8: Time Machine is the built-in macOS utility designed to automatically back up user data, system settings, and previous versions of files to an external or network drive.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 10 } ], "options": [ "Disk Utility", "FileVault", "Time Machine", "Finder" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-os-11", "obj": "1.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician needs to view a system file that is currently hidden from view in the Windows OS. Where in the Windows configuration should they navigate to enable the 'View hidden files' option?", "correct_short": "File Explorer Options", "explanation": "OBJ 1.5: The File Explorer Options menu in the Windows Control Panel contains the View tab, which provides the settings to view hidden files and show or hide file extensions.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 11 } ], "options": [ "Indexing Options", "File Explorer Options", "System Configuration", "Device Manager" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-os-12", "obj": "1.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user upgrades their computer's physical memory from 4 GB to 16 GB, but the Windows System Information tool still reports only 4 GB of usable RAM. What is the most likely cause?", "correct_short": "The system is running a 32-bit edition of Windows.", "explanation": "OBJ 1.9: All 32-bit editions of Windows are structurally limited to addressing a maximum of 4 GB of RAM, regardless of how much physical memory is installed on the motherboard.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 12 } ], "options": [ "The master boot record is corrupted.", "The system is running a 32-bit edition of Windows.", "The system partition is formatted with FAT32.", "The memory is not ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-os-13", "obj": "1.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician is using the Windows command prompt and needs to view detailed information about the current partitions, assign drive letters, or extend a volume. Which command-line tool provides an interactive prompt for these tasks?", "correct_short": "diskpart", "explanation": "OBJ 1.2: The 'diskpart' command-line utility provides an interactive environment to view, create, format, assign drive letters to, and extend partitions or volumes.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 13 } ], "options": [ "sfc", "chkdsk", "diskpart", "format" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-os-14", "obj": "1.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "When setting up a multiboot installation containing both Windows and Linux on a single computer, which of the following is a recommended best practice?", "correct_short": "Install Windows first because Windows setup overwrites the boot loader.", "explanation": "OBJ 1.9: It is a best practice to install Windows first because its setup program will automatically overwrite the boot loader, whereas installing Linux afterward allows its GRUB bootloader to successfully detect and list the Windows OS.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 14 } ], "options": [ "Use the MBR partition style to support up to 128 partitions.", "Install Windows first because Windows setup overwrites the boot loader.", "Install Linux first because GRUB cannot detect Windows.", "Format the entire disk with the APFS file system before installing." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-os-15", "obj": "1.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A Windows 10 user reports that an application is freezing unexpectedly. The technician wants to investigate the system, security, and application logs to locate any generated error messages. Which Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in should they use?", "correct_short": "Event Viewer (eventvwr.msc)", "explanation": "OBJ 1.3: The Event Viewer (eventvwr.msc) is the MMC snap-in specifically designed to let administrators review, manage, and audit system, security, and application event logs.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 15 } ], "options": [ "Event Viewer (eventvwr.msc)", "Task Scheduler (taskschd.msc)", "Device Manager (devmgmt.msc)", "Local Security Policy (secpol.msc)" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-01", "obj": "2.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which physical security control restricts access to one person at a time by using one gateway that leads to an enclosed space protected by another barrier?", "correct_short": "Access control vestibule", "explanation": "OBJ 2.1: An access control vestibule prevents tailgating by requiring a person to pass through one door into an enclosed space before opening a second door.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 16 } ], "options": [ "Magnetometer", "Bollard", "Turnstile", "Access control vestibule" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-02", "obj": "2.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "In an access control system, which principle ensures that any request for access is automatically refused unless there is a specific rule specifying that access should be granted?", "correct_short": "Implicit deny", "explanation": "OBJ 2.1: Implicit deny means that unless there is a rule specifying that access should be granted, any request for access is automatically denied by the system.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 17 } ], "options": [ "Principle of least privilege", "Zero trust", "Implicit deny", "Just-in-time access" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-03", "obj": "2.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which of the following is considered a valid multifactor authentication (MFA) combination?", "correct_short": "A smart card and a fingerprint", "explanation": "OBJ 2.1: Multifactor authentication requires using at least two different types of credentials, such as something you have (a smart card) and something you are (a fingerprint).", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 18 } ], "options": [ "A smart card and a fingerprint", "A password and a PIN", "A fingerprint and a retina scan", "A password and a security question" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-04", "obj": "2.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which security framework requires that all users and devices be continuously authenticated, authorized, and validated before being granted access to resources, regardless of their location?", "correct_short": "Zero Trust", "explanation": "OBJ 2.1: Zero Trust is a framework based on the principle of 'never trust, always verify', meaning no user or device is automatically trusted regardless of their location.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 19 } ], "options": [ "Implicit deny", "Zero Trust", "Principle of least privilege", "Single sign-on" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-05", "obj": "2.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which enterprise authentication protocol is often used specifically to authenticate administrative access to routers, switches, and access points?", "correct_short": "TACACS+", "explanation": "OBJ 2.2: TACACS+ is an AAA protocol developed by Cisco that is frequently used to authenticate administrative access to network appliances like routers and switches.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 20 } ], "options": [ "SAML", "TACACS+", "RADIUS", "Kerberos" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-06", "obj": "2.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "In WPA3 personal authentication, what protocol replaces the vulnerable WPA2 4-way handshake using a pre-shared key (PSK)?", "correct_short": "Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE)", "explanation": "OBJ 2.2: WPA3 replaces the WPA2-PSK mechanism with the Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) protocol to provide perfect forward secrecy and protect against key recovery attacks.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 21 } ], "options": [ "Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE)", "TKIP", "AES", "EAP-TLS" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-07", "obj": "2.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which type of malware uses the host's native scripting environment, such as Windows PowerShell, to create malicious processes in memory without writing an executable image to the disk?", "correct_short": "Fileless malware", "explanation": "OBJ 2.3: Fileless malware operates in memory using tools like PowerShell or JavaScript, making it harder to detect since it does not install a traditional executable file.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 22 } ], "options": [ "Trojan", "Boot sector virus", "Rootkit", "Fileless malware" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-08", "obj": "2.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A threat actor targets a phishing attack specifically against the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of an organization. What is this type of attack called?", "correct_short": "Whaling", "explanation": "OBJ 2.4: Whaling is a specific type of spear-phishing attack directed against upper levels of management, such as CEOs, in an organization.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 23 } ], "options": [ "Smishing", "Whaling", "Tailgating", "Vishing" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-09", "obj": "2.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which of the following is a type of on-path attack where the threat actor sets up a rogue wireless access point using a similar network name (SSID) to a legitimate one?", "correct_short": "Evil twin", "explanation": "OBJ 2.4: An evil twin is a rogue Wi-Fi access point spoofed to look like a legitimate network, allowing the attacker to harvest credentials or intercept data.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 24 } ], "options": [ "Denial of service", "Evil twin", "SQL injection", "Dictionary attack" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-10", "obj": "3.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "According to the CompTIA 7-step malware removal procedure, what should a technician do immediately after investigating and verifying malware symptoms?", "correct_short": "Quarantine the infected system", "explanation": "OBJ 3.3: The second step of the malware removal process is to quarantine the infected system to prevent the malware from spreading to other hosts on the network.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 25 } ], "options": [ "Update anti-malware software", "Quarantine the infected system", "Disable System Restore", "Remediate the infected system" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-11", "obj": "2.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A threat actor accesses a computer that an employee walked away from without locking the screen. What is this type of vulnerability exploit commonly called?", "correct_short": "Lunchtime attack", "explanation": "OBJ 2.4: A lunchtime attack occurs when an attacker gains access to a computer that has been left unlocked and unattended by a user.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 26 } ], "options": [ "Shoulder surfing", "Lunchtime attack", "Dumpster diving", "Piggybacking" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-12", "obj": "2.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which class of software allows an enterprise to enforce security policies, manage Wi-Fi settings, and deploy apps across employee-owned (BYOD) smartphones?", "correct_short": "Mobile Device Management (MDM)", "explanation": "OBJ 2.6: Mobile Device Management (MDM) software is used to apply security policies, configuration profiles, and app restrictions to mobile devices in an enterprise environment.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 27 } ], "options": [ "Mobile Device Management (MDM)", "Unified Threat Management (UTM)", "Virtual Private Network (VPN)", "Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR)" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-13", "obj": "2.10", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user attempts to connect to a secure website but receives a warning message from the browser, and the padlock icon is replaced by an alert icon. What is the most likely cause?", "correct_short": "The site's digital certificate is untrusted or invalid.", "explanation": "OBJ 2.10: If a website's digital certificate is untrusted, expired, or invalid, the browser will display a warning and replace the padlock icon with an alert icon.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 28 } ], "options": [ "The browser is running in private-browsing mode.", "The site's digital certificate is untrusted or invalid.", "The firewall is blocking port 80.", "A proxy server is caching the website data." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-14", "obj": "2.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which SOHO router feature allows devices to automatically configure firewall ports but should normally be disabled because it can be exploited by malware?", "correct_short": "Universal Plug and Play (UPnP)", "explanation": "OBJ 2.9: UPnP allows devices to automatically open firewall ports for seamless connectivity, but it is a major security risk as malicious software can also exploit it to bypass the firewall.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 29 } ], "options": [ "MAC filtering", "Universal Plug and Play (UPnP)", "Screened subnet", "Port forwarding" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-15", "obj": "2.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "On a small office/home office (SOHO) router, what feature is often used to place a single host outside the protection of the local firewall, exposing it completely to the public Internet?", "correct_short": "Screened subnet (DMZ)", "explanation": "OBJ 2.9: On a SOHO router, a screened subnet (often labeled as DMZ) assigns a host to a zone that strips away all firewall protection, completely exposing it to the Internet.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 30 } ], "options": [ "Screened subnet (DMZ)", "Virtual LAN (VLAN)", "Port triggering", "Wi-Fi Protected Access" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-16", "obj": "2.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which built-in Windows feature provides full disk encryption to protect data-at-rest from unauthorized access in the event the device is physically stolen?", "correct_short": "BitLocker", "explanation": "OBJ 2.6: BitLocker provides full volume data-at-rest encryption to protect the operating system and user files if the hard drive or computer is physically stolen.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 31 } ], "options": [ "System File Checker", "User Account Control (UAC)", "Windows Defender Firewall", "BitLocker" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-17", "obj": "2.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which type of attack involves an attacker inserting malicious code into an application's input field to extract or manipulate backend database information?", "correct_short": "Structured Query Language (SQL) injection", "explanation": "OBJ 2.4: SQL injection occurs when a threat actor inputs malicious SQL statements into a web application to execute unauthorized queries against the backend database.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 32 } ], "options": [ "Spoofing", "Cross-site scripting (XSS)", "Zero-day attack", "Structured Query Language (SQL) injection" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-18", "obj": "2.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What type of malware payload encrypts a victim's files or locks their system, demanding payment for the decryption key?", "correct_short": "Ransomware", "explanation": "OBJ 2.3: Ransomware is a form of malware that extorts money from a victim by encrypting their personal files or locking the system until a ransom is paid.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 33 } ], "options": [ "Adware", "Spyware", "Cryptominer", "Ransomware" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-19", "obj": "2.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "To protect stored passwords, systems use a one-way function to generate a fixed-length string from the plaintext password. What is this cryptographic process called?", "correct_short": "Cryptographic hashing", "explanation": "OBJ 2.1: A cryptographic hash algorithm converts a password into a fixed-length string using a one-way function, making it theoretically impossible to recover the plaintext password from the hash.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 34 } ], "options": [ "Asymmetric encryption", "Cryptographic hashing", "Base64 encoding", "Symmetric encryption" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-20", "obj": "2.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which Windows feature prompts a user for explicit consent or administrator credentials before allowing a task that requires elevated privileges to execute?", "correct_short": "User Account Control (UAC)", "explanation": "OBJ 2.5: User Account Control (UAC) is a security feature that requires the user to explicitly consent before a process can run with administrative privileges, helping prevent unauthorized system changes.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 35 } ], "options": [ "Windows Defender", "Encrypting File System (EFS)", "User Account Control (UAC)", "Windows Hello" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-swt-01", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A Windows computer displays a 'Boot device not found' error on startup. Which command-line tool should a technician use in the Windows Recovery Environment to attempt to repair the boot sector?", "correct_short": "bootrec", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1: The 'bootrec' tool, specifically with switches like '/fixboot' or '/fixmbr', is used in the Windows Recovery Environment to repair boot sector and partition record issues.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 36 } ], "options": [ "chkdsk", "sfc", "diskpart", "bootrec" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-swt-02", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user experiences a Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) immediately after installing a new graphics adapter. What is the most likely cause of this system crash?", "correct_short": "A faulty or incompatible device driver", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1: A Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) is often caused by faulty hardware or faulty and incompatible device drivers, especially when it occurs immediately after installing a new component.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 37 } ], "options": [ "A faulty or incompatible device driver", "An invalid Group Policy setting", "A corrupted user profile", "A failed background application service" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-swt-03", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "If a Windows system is extremely slow to load the desktop immediately following a successful user sign-in, which specific file is most likely corrupted?", "correct_short": "NTUSER.DAT", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1: If the system boots normally but experiences a long delay loading the desktop after sign-in, the issue is typically a corrupted user profile registry settings file named 'NTUSER.DAT'.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 38 } ], "options": [ "BOOTMGR", "winload.exe", "NTUSER.DAT", "pagefile.sys" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-swt-04", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A non-critical Windows service is repeatedly failing to load during the normal system boot process because the computer is trying to load too many services at once. What is the best way to resolve this issue?", "correct_short": "Set the service to use a 'Delayed start'", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1: If a non-critical service becomes 'stuck' during the busy startup process, changing its configuration to a 'Delayed start' will allow it to load after the primary boot sequence finishes.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 39 } ], "options": [ "Rebuild the boot configuration database", "Run the 'sfc /scannow' command", "Set the service to use a 'Delayed start'", "Delete the 'NTUSER.DAT' file" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-swt-05", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A specific third-party application on a Windows workstation keeps crashing unexpectedly. After ensuring user data is preserved, what is the best next step to diagnose the cause of the software crash?", "correct_short": "Check the Event Viewer application logs for fault details", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1: When a specific application crashes repeatedly, the technician should check the Event Viewer logs to identify the exact faulting module or error code causing the software to fail.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 40 } ], "options": [ "Reformat the local hard drive", "Modify the system BIOS/UEFI boot order", "Run the Windows Memory Diagnostic tool", "Check the Event Viewer application logs for fault details" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-swt-06", "obj": "3.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user reports that several personal files on their desktop have been inexplicably renamed, and some system files appear to be missing entirely. What does this symptom strongly indicate?", "correct_short": "A malware infection", "explanation": "OBJ 3.2: Inexplicably missing or renamed files, along with altered file permissions resulting in 'Access Denied' errors, are strong indicators that the system has suffered a malware infection.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 41 } ], "options": [ "A malware infection", "A corrupted display driver", "An expired Windows license", "A failing hard drive motor" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-swt-07", "obj": "3.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "When a user attempts to navigate to their bank's legitimate website, their browser continually forces them to a different, spoofed web page. What type of symptom is the user experiencing?", "correct_short": "Browser redirection", "explanation": "OBJ 3.2: Redirection occurs when a user tries to open one specific page but is forcibly sent to a different, often malicious, web page due to spyware or adware modifying the browser settings.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 42 } ], "options": [ "Application crashing", "Certificate warning", "Cryptomining", "Browser redirection" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-swt-08", "obj": "3.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user receives a persistent pop-up on their desktop claiming their computer is severely infected and they must immediately pay for a specific 'antivirus' software to clean it. What type of malware attack is this?", "correct_short": "Fake security warning (scareware)", "explanation": "OBJ 3.2: Fake security warnings, or scareware, try to frighten the user into installing Trojan malware by presenting a deceptive alert that mimics legitimate antivirus software.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 43 } ], "options": [ "Distributed denial of service", "Business email compromise", "Zero-day exploit", "Fake security warning (scareware)" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-swt-09", "obj": "3.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user attempts to connect to an e-commerce website, but the browser displays a prominent warning that the site's digital certificate is invalid and replaces the padlock icon with an alert. What security threat might this indicate?", "correct_short": "An on-path attack attempting to intercept encrypted traffic", "explanation": "OBJ 3.2: Invalid or untrusted certificate warnings can indicate that a malicious proxy is presenting a spoofed certificate in an attempt to perform an on-path attack and intercept secure traffic.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 44 } ], "options": [ "A corrupted Master Boot Record (MBR)", "A failed Windows Update installation", "An excessive amount of background app refresh data", "An on-path attack attempting to intercept encrypted traffic" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-swt-10", "obj": "3.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user complains that a new application repeatedly fails to install on their Android smartphone. After verifying the device has a stable internet connection, what should the technician check next?", "correct_short": "Check that the device has sufficient available storage space", "explanation": "OBJ 3.4: If an application fails to install despite a good internet connection, the technician should verify that the mobile device has adequate storage space and is running a compatible OS version.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 45 } ], "options": [ "Disable the device's screen autorotate feature", "Check that the device has sufficient available storage space", "Check that the device is connected to a 5 GHz Wi-Fi band instead of 2.4 GHz", "Force reboot the device into the Windows Recovery Environment" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-swt-11", "obj": "3.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user's mobile tablet is running extremely slowly and is sluggish to respond to touch input. The device is not hot, and the battery is fully charged. What is the quickest temporary fix to clear RAM and close background apps?", "correct_short": "Perform a soft reset by rebooting the device", "explanation": "OBJ 3.4: Rebooting a mobile device performs a soft reset, which closes all applications and clears the system RAM, often immediately resolving sluggish performance caused by resource constraints.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 46 } ], "options": [ "Perform a soft reset by rebooting the device", "Install a third-party custom ROM", "Perform a complete factory wipe of the device", "Replace the tablet's digitizer screen" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-swt-12", "obj": "3.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user reports that their smartphone battery is draining completely within just a few hours of normal use. Which of the following is the most effective software-level troubleshooting step to resolve this?", "correct_short": "Review battery settings to identify and restrict apps consuming excessive background power", "explanation": "OBJ 3.4: To troubleshoot rapid battery drain, a technician should check the device battery settings to identify which apps are running heavily in the background and restrict their unnecessary background activity.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 47 } ], "options": [ "Delete the device's entire contact list", "Re-calibrate the device's touch screen digitizer", "Enable the device's Mobile Hotspot feature", "Review battery settings to identify and restrict apps consuming excessive background power" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-swt-13", "obj": "3.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user is frustrated that their smartphone screen will no longer switch from portrait to landscape mode when they turn the device sideways. What is the first setting a technician should check?", "correct_short": "Verify that the rotation lock feature is not enabled in the Control Center or notification drawer", "explanation": "OBJ 3.4: The most common and easily resolvable reason a mobile device screen fails to autorotate is that the user has accidentally enabled the rotation lock feature in the quick settings menu.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 48 } ], "options": [ "Verify that the device is not connected to a Bluetooth headset", "Verify that the rotation lock feature is not enabled in the Control Center or notification drawer", "Verify that the device has an active cellular data plan", "Verify that the device is running a 64-bit operating system" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-swt-14", "obj": "3.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user intentionally modifies their smartphone's firmware to gain root administrative privileges, bypassing the vendor's built-in restrictions. What is a primary security concern of performing this 'jailbreaking' or 'rooting' process?", "correct_short": "It disables built-in OS security features and compromises the device's integrity", "explanation": "OBJ 3.5: Jailbreaking or rooting a mobile device bypasses the manufacturer's 'walled garden' protections, which disables core security features and leaves the operating system highly vulnerable to malware.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 49 } ], "options": [ "It automatically encrypts all user data using an unknown key", "It permanently disables the device's Wi-Fi and Bluetooth antennas", "It forces the device to only install applications from the official vendor store", "It disables built-in OS security features and compromises the device's integrity" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-swt-15", "obj": "3.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user receives an alert from their cellular provider that their smartphone has suddenly exceeded its monthly data limit, despite the user rarely browsing the internet. What security issue does this high network traffic most likely indicate?", "correct_short": "A malicious application is secretly exfiltrating data or performing background cryptomining", "explanation": "OBJ 3.5: Unexpectedly high network traffic on a mobile device is a classic symptom of a malware infection, as rogue apps may secretly transfer personal files, send spam, or communicate with command-and-control servers in the background.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 50 } ], "options": [ "A malicious application is secretly exfiltrating data or performing background cryptomining", "The device's biometric fingerprint scanner is malfunctioning", "The mobile device is attempting to connect to a 5 GHz Wi-Fi network", "The device requires a new SIM card" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-swt-16", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A Windows computer is running extremely slowly, and the technician notices that the hard drive activity LED is solidly lit without blinking. This 'disk thrashing' is most commonly a symptom of what underlying issue?", "correct_short": "The system lacks sufficient RAM and is relying heavily on the paging file", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1: Disk thrashing, indicated by constant hard drive activity, often occurs when a system has insufficient physical RAM and is forced to constantly swap memory pages to and from the much slower hard disk.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 51 } ], "options": [ "The computer's IP address has expired", "The processor is overheating and thermal throttling", "The system lacks sufficient RAM and is relying heavily on the paging file", "The monitor's refresh rate is set too low" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-swt-17", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A Windows 10 workstation is experiencing frequent application crashes and overall system instability. The technician suspects that core operating system files have become corrupted. Which command-line tool should they run to scan and repair these protected files?", "correct_short": "sfc /scannow", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1: The System File Checker (sfc) utility, when executed with the '/scannow' switch, will scan the integrity of all protected Windows system files and replace any incorrect or damaged versions.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 52 } ], "options": [ "gpupdate /force", "bootrec /fixmbr", "diskpart", "sfc /scannow" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-swt-18", "obj": "3.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user configures their Android device to allow the installation of applications from third-party websites rather than the official Google Play Store. What is the primary security risk of using these unofficial application sources?", "correct_short": "The downloaded apps are not vetted for security and have a high chance of containing Trojan malware", "explanation": "OBJ 3.5: Applications downloaded from unofficial third-party stores or websites do not undergo the strict security vetting processes of official marketplaces, making them a common vector for distributing Trojan malware.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 53 } ], "options": [ "The downloaded apps will permanently lock the device's screen orientation", "The downloaded apps will force the device to upgrade to a beta operating system", "The downloaded apps will automatically perform a remote wipe of the device", "The downloaded apps are not vetted for security and have a high chance of containing Trojan malware" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-swt-19", "obj": "3.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user notices that a recently installed flashlight application is requesting persistent access to the device's GPS and location services. Why is this unexpected application behavior a security concern?", "correct_short": "The rogue application could be performing unauthorized location tracking to expose the user's movements to third parties", "explanation": "OBJ 3.5: When an application requests permissions that are completely unrelated to its primary function, such as a flashlight app requesting GPS access, it is a strong indicator of a malicious app attempting to harvest and leak sensitive user data.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 54 } ], "options": [ "The rogue application could be performing unauthorized location tracking to expose the user's movements to third parties", "The application requires GPS data to properly illuminate the screen", "The application will cause the device's camera flash to overheat and break", "The application is attempting to automatically pair with nearby Bluetooth devices" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-swt-20", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A Windows workstation in a corporate domain is suddenly unable to authenticate the user's login credentials or connect to secure network shares. The technician notices the computer's clock is 15 minutes behind the actual time. What issue is causing the authentication failure?", "correct_short": "System time drift", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1: Time drift occurs when a local computer's clock falls out of sync with the network's time server, which will quickly cause secure authentication protocols like Kerberos to fail and deny the user access.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 55 } ], "options": [ "A corrupt NTUSER.DAT file", "An IP address conflict", "A failed Windows Update", "System time drift" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-01", "obj": "4.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which backup method requires the least amount of storage and time to run on a daily basis but has the most recovery complexity because it involves multiple jobs?", "correct_short": "Incremental", "explanation": "OBJ 4.3: Incremental backups select only new files and files modified since the previous job, having the lowest time and storage requirement but the highest recovery complexity.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 56 } ], "options": [ "Synthetic Full", "Full", "Differential", "Incremental" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-02", "obj": "4.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "In a formal change management process, what is the primary role of the Change Advisory Board (CAB)?", "correct_short": "To assess the business case, technical merits, and risks of a proposed change plan", "explanation": "OBJ 4.2: The CAB assesses the business case, technical merits, and risks of a change plan before granting approval for major changes.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 57 } ], "options": [ "To update the configuration management database (CMDB) after implementation", "To assess the business case, technical merits, and risks of a proposed change plan", "To physically implement the new equipment after hours", "To perform sandbox testing of the proposed network change" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-03", "obj": "4.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "When using a ticketing system, how is a routine task that is covered by a Standard Operating Procedure (SOP), such as setting up a new user account, typically categorized?", "correct_short": "A request", "explanation": "OBJ 4.1: Service management standards distinguish requests as routine tasks that the IT department has an SOP for, whereas incidents relate to errors or unexpected situations.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 58 } ], "options": [ "An emergency change", "A normal change", "A request", "An incident" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-04", "obj": "4.7", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician wants to take charge of a conversation with an end-user to establish specific technical facts. Which communication technique should they use?", "correct_short": "Ask closed questions that require a fixed 'Yes' or 'No' response", "explanation": "OBJ 4.7: Closed questions require a fixed response like 'Yes' or 'No' and allow the technician to take charge of the conversation to establish specific facts quickly.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 59 } ], "options": [ "Ask open-ended questions that invite opinions", "Ask closed questions that require a fixed 'Yes' or 'No' response", "Argue with the customer to establish authority", "Dismiss the customer's statements to focus on the hardware" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-05", "obj": "4.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "To safely use an anti-ESD wrist strap when repairing a computer, where should the alligator clip be attached?", "correct_short": "To an unpainted part of the computer's metal chassis or a grounding plug", "explanation": "OBJ 4.4: The wrist strap ground is made by plugging it into a grounded point or using an alligator clip attached to an unpainted part of the computer's metal chassis.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 60 } ], "options": [ "To the plastic mounting card of the component being installed", "To the building's main power distribution panel", "To the internal power supply fan", "To an unpainted part of the computer's metal chassis or a grounding plug" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-06", "obj": "4.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician needs to automate a task in the Windows PowerShell environment. Which file extension identifies a PowerShell script?", "correct_short": ".ps1", "explanation": "OBJ 4.8: Windows PowerShell script files are identified by the .ps1 extension.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 61 } ], "options": [ ".bat", ".py", ".ps1", ".sh" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-07", "obj": "4.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician needs to clean up a toner spill inside a laser printer. Why should they strictly avoid using a standard compressed air blaster?", "correct_short": "It will blow fine toner dust into the atmosphere and create a health hazard", "explanation": "OBJ 4.5: Using a compressed air blaster on a toner spill blows fine, potentially irritating toner dust into the office atmosphere, creating a respiratory health hazard.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 62 } ], "options": [ "Compressed air introduces moisture that ruins the imaging drum", "The air pressure will erase the printer's NVRAM", "It will blow fine toner dust into the atmosphere and create a health hazard", "The air blaster will freeze the fuser unit" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-08", "obj": "4.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "When recovering evidence from a compromised system, what data should a forensic investigator collect first according to the order of volatility?", "correct_short": "Data located in the CPU cache and registers", "explanation": "OBJ 4.6: CPU cache and registers are the most volatile data locations and change rapidly, so they must be collected first before memory or persistent disk storage.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 63 } ], "options": [ "Data stored on the local hard disk drive", "Archival backup tapes", "Data located in the CPU cache and registers", "The temporary file system and swap space" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-09", "obj": "4.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician uses an Artificial Intelligence tool to generate a troubleshooting script, but notices the AI has generated incorrect and completely fabricated commands that do not exist. What is this limitation called?", "correct_short": "Hallucination", "explanation": "OBJ 4.6: A hallucination is a limitation of Artificial Intelligence where the AI generates incorrect, distorted, or fabricated information that is not based on facts.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 64 } ], "options": [ "Plagiarism", "Application integration", "Bias", "Hallucination" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-10", "obj": "4.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Why should an IT specialist never open the cover of a PC power supply unit to attempt repairs?", "correct_short": "The capacitors can hold dangerously high levels of voltage for hours after the power is turned off", "explanation": "OBJ 4.4: Power supply units can carry dangerously high levels of voltage, and charges held in capacitors can persist for hours after the unit is turned off, making them unsafe for user servicing.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 65 } ], "options": [ "It will immediately corrupt the BIOS/UEFI firmware", "The power supply relies on a strict vacuum seal to function properly", "The manufacturer warranty explicitly prohibits it for environmental reasons", "The capacitors can hold dangerously high levels of voltage for hours after the power is turned off" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-11", "obj": "4.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which backup best practice states that an organization should have three copies of their data, across two media types, with one copy held offline and off-site?", "correct_short": "The 3-2-1 backup rule", "explanation": "OBJ 4.3: The 3-2-1 backup rule is a best-practice maxim stating you should have three copies of data, across two media types, with one copy held offline and off-site to mitigate disaster scenarios.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 66 } ], "options": [ "The synthetic full backup strategy", "The Grandfather-Father-Son scheme", "The principle of least privilege", "The 3-2-1 backup rule" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-12", "obj": "4.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "During the implementation of a scheduled network change, a critical error occurs causing a system outage. What part of the change request documentation dictates how to reverse the change and restore the original configuration?", "correct_short": "The rollback plan", "explanation": "OBJ 4.2: A rollback plan is a documented procedure used to reverse a failed change and safely restore the system to its original configuration.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 67 } ], "options": [ "The end-user acceptance form", "The rollback plan", "The risk analysis", "The scope of the change" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-13", "obj": "4.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician writes a script that uses a 'For' statement to iterate through a list of IP addresses and ping each one. What basic script construct is being used?", "correct_short": "A loop", "explanation": "OBJ 4.8: A 'For' statement is a type of loop construct that changes the order of execution by repeating a task based on evaluated logical conditions.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 68 } ], "options": [ "A constant", "An environmental variable", "A comment", "A loop" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-14", "obj": "4.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What term describes the full lifecycle of an asset from its purchase completion and delivery to its eventual disposal?", "correct_short": "Procurement life cycle", "explanation": "OBJ 4.1: The procurement life cycle refers to the full life of the asset from its purchase completion and delivery to its eventual disposal when no longer needed.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 69 } ], "options": [ "Incident report", "Procurement life cycle", "Service-level agreement (SLA)", "Standard operating procedure (SOP)" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-15", "obj": "4.7", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "An angry customer claims a newly purchased laptop is completely useless. What is the most appropriate way for the IT technician to respond professionally?", "correct_short": "Empathize with the customer's frustration and focus on positive actions to resolve the issue", "explanation": "OBJ 4.7: A professional maintains a positive attitude by empathizing with the customer's frustration, avoiding arguments, and focusing on practical steps to resolve the issue.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 70 } ], "options": [ "Vigorously defend the company's hardware quality and argue with the customer", "Tell the customer they probably caused the problem due to lack of knowledge", "Empathize with the customer's frustration and focus on positive actions to resolve the issue", "Ignore the customer's complaints entirely until they calm down" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-16", "obj": "2.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What data destruction method is considered highly effective for self-encrypting drives (SEDs) because it instantly sanitizes the drive by destroying the media encryption key?", "correct_short": "Crypto-erase", "explanation": "OBJ 2.8: Crypto-erase instantly renders all data on a self-encrypting drive unrecoverable by securely destroying the encryption key used to decode the data.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 71 } ], "options": [ "Drilling", "Standard formatting", "Crypto-erase", "Degaussing" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-17", "obj": "4.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which general-purpose scripting language is primarily designed to implement interactive web-based content and web applications, often executing directly within an HTML page?", "correct_short": "JavaScript", "explanation": "OBJ 4.8: JavaScript is a scripting language designed to implement interactive web-based content and is often embedded directly within the HTML code of a web page.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 72 } ], "options": [ "Python", "Bash", "VBScript", "JavaScript" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-18", "obj": "4.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A help desk technician needs to remotely access and manage hundreds of client endpoints simultaneously, often pushing updates without interrupting the end-users. Which technology is best suited for this task?", "correct_short": "Remote Monitoring and Management (RMM)", "explanation": "OBJ 4.9: Remote Monitoring and Management (RMM) software is specifically designed for enterprise IT support to remotely monitor, manage, and update multiple endpoints efficiently.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 73 } ], "options": [ "Remote Monitoring and Management (RMM)", "Simple Protocol for Independent Computing Environments (SPICE)", "Virtual Private Network (VPN)", "Secure Shell (SSH)" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-19", "obj": "4.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "An IT technician accidentally breaks an old uninterruptible power supply (UPS) and a chemical substance leaks out. Where should the technician look to find first aid information and safe cleanup procedures?", "correct_short": "The Safety Data Sheet (SDS)", "explanation": "OBJ 4.5: A Safety Data Sheet (SDS) — called a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) before the 2015 OSHA/GHS update — contains the hazardous-ingredient list, health hazards, first-aid steps, and safe cleanup procedures for spills. Field materials still use both terms; the modern standard is SDS.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 74 } ], "options": [ "The Safety Data Sheet (SDS)", "The knowledge base FAQ", "The end-user license agreement (EULA)", "The configuration management database (CMDB)" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-20", "obj": "4.7", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "After a frustrating interaction with an abusive client, an IT support agent wants to vent about the experience. According to professional communication guidelines, what should the agent do?", "correct_short": "Discuss the issue privately face-to-face with a colleague", "explanation": "OBJ 4.7: Professionalism dictates that technicians must exercise discretion; they should discuss difficult situations privately face-to-face with a colleague rather than posting about them on social media.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 75 } ], "options": [ "Call the client back to demand an apology", "Send a mass email to the client's department explaining the client's bad behavior", "Post a detailed complaint on a public social media platform", "Discuss the issue privately face-to-face with a colleague" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.1-1", "obj": "1.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which file system is the proprietary default used on modern Apple Mac workstations and laptops to natively support advanced features like journaling and snapshots?", "correct_short": "APFS", "explanation": "OBJ 1.1 (Operating Systems): APFS (Apple File System) is the proprietary default file system used by modern macOS environments.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 1 } ], "options": [ "APFS", "NTFS", "ext4", "exFAT" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.1-2", "obj": "1.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What does the term 'end-of-life' (EOL) indicate for an operating system like Windows 10?", "correct_short": "The OS is no longer supported by its vendor and no longer receives security updates.", "explanation": "OBJ 1.1 (Operating Systems): An end-of-life (EOL) system is no longer supported by the vendor and does not receive security updates, representing a critical vulnerability if used.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 2 } ], "options": [ "The OS is no longer commercially available but still receives critical security patches.", "The OS is currently in a public beta phase to gather early user feedback.", "The OS is no longer supported by its vendor and no longer receives security updates.", "The OS will automatically uninstall itself from all enterprise devices." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.1-3", "obj": "1.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which of the following operating systems is an open-source platform that dominates the web server market and is extensively used in Internet of Things (IoT) devices?", "correct_short": "Linux", "explanation": "OBJ 1.1 (Operating Systems): Linux is a highly portable, open-source operating system that dominates the web server market and is widely used in smart appliances and IoT devices.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 3 } ], "options": [ "Chrome OS", "Linux", "iOS", "macOS" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.2-1", "obj": "1.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What firmware feature is mandatory for a client computer to initiate a remote network-based installation of an operating system?", "correct_short": "Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)", "explanation": "OBJ 1.2 (Operating Systems): Network booting requires the client network adapters and firmware to be PXE-compliant (Preboot Execution Environment) to locate the installation server over the network.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 4 } ], "options": [ "Trusted Platform Module (TPM)", "Master Boot Record (MBR)", "Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)", "Universal Serial Bus (USB) Selective Suspend" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.2-2", "obj": "1.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "When performing a multiboot installation containing both Microsoft Windows and Linux on a single computer, which of the following is a recommended best practice?", "correct_short": "Install Windows first because its setup overwrites the boot loader, whereas Linux's GRUB can detect other OSs.", "explanation": "OBJ 1.2 (Operating Systems): It is best practice to install Windows first because Windows setup overwrites the boot loader, while the Linux GRUB boot loader is capable of detecting existing Windows installations.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 5 } ], "options": [ "Linux uses the NTFS file system which must be created by Windows first.", "Linux requires the Master Boot Record to be completely blank before installation.", "Windows requires a minimum of four primary partitions to function properly alongside Linux.", "Install Windows first because its setup overwrites the boot loader, whereas Linux's GRUB can detect other OSs." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.2-3", "obj": "1.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "If a computer's main operating system fails to boot, which feature created by OEMs on the internal fixed drive can be used to restore the OS to its original factory state?", "correct_short": "Recovery partition", "explanation": "OBJ 1.2 (Operating Systems): A factory recovery partition is created by OEMs on the internal drive to allow users to reset the system to its original factory state if the main OS fails.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 6 } ], "options": [ "Master Boot Record (MBR)", "Recovery partition", "Slipstreamed media", "Answer file" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.3-1", "obj": "1.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which editions of Microsoft Windows 10 natively support joining a centralized Windows domain network?", "correct_short": "Windows 10 Pro, Enterprise, and Education", "explanation": "OBJ 1.3 (Operating Systems): Windows 10 Pro, Enterprise, and Education editions support joining a domain network, whereas the Home edition is strictly limited to workgroup networks.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 7 } ], "options": [ "All editions including Windows 10 Home", "Only Windows 10 Pro for Workstations", "Only Windows 10 Enterprise and Education", "Windows 10 Pro, Enterprise, and Education" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.3-2", "obj": "1.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What specific security hardware feature is strictly mandatory to install or upgrade a computer to Windows 11?", "correct_short": "Trusted Platform Module (TPM) 2.0", "explanation": "OBJ 1.3 (Operating Systems): Windows 11 strictly requires a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) 2.0 security chip and UEFI with Secure Boot to perform an installation or upgrade.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 8 } ], "options": [ "Trusted Platform Module (TPM) 2.0", "At least 128 GB of Random Access Memory (RAM)", "A 32-bit central processing unit (CPU)", "Master Boot Record (MBR) partition style" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.3-3", "obj": "1.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What is the defining characteristic of the 'N' versions of Microsoft Windows available in Europe?", "correct_short": "They exclude certain pre-installed multimedia applications to comply with EU regulations.", "explanation": "OBJ 1.3 (Operating Systems): 'N' versions of Windows exclude built-in multimedia applications like Windows Media Player to comply with European Union regulations promoting software choice.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 9 } ], "options": [ "They are restricted to a maximum of 4 GB of RAM.", "They require a persistent Internet connection to function.", "They exclude certain pre-installed multimedia applications to comply with EU regulations.", "They only support a 32-bit processor architecture." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.4-1", "obj": "1.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician needs to make manual edits to the database of Windows configuration settings, specifically within the 'HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE' root key. Which tool should they use?", "correct_short": "Registry Editor (regedit.exe)", "explanation": "OBJ 1.4 (Operating Systems): The Registry Editor (regedit.exe) is used to view and make manual edits to the Windows registry database, which contains root keys like 'HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE'.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 10 } ], "options": [ "Local Security Policy (secpol.msc)", "Event Viewer (eventvwr.msc)", "Registry Editor (regedit.exe)", "System Configuration (msconfig.exe)" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.4-2", "obj": "1.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which tab in the Task Manager should a technician use to disable programs that are set to run automatically when the user signs in, in order to improve boot times?", "correct_short": "Startup", "explanation": "OBJ 1.4 (Operating Systems): The Startup tab in the Task Manager allows users to view the impact of startup applications and disable them to improve system boot times.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 11 } ], "options": [ "Startup", "Performance", "Processes", "Services" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.4-3", "obj": "1.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician suspects that a system's sluggish performance is due to excessive paging. Which tool provides advanced snapshot monitoring of hard page faults per second and other detailed performance graphs?", "correct_short": "Resource Monitor (resmon.exe)", "explanation": "OBJ 1.4 (Operating Systems): The Resource Monitor (resmon.exe) provides advanced snapshot monitoring beyond Task Manager, displaying detailed statistics such as hard page faults per second.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 12 } ], "options": [ "Resource Monitor (resmon.exe)", "Disk Management", "System Information", "Device Manager" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.5-1", "obj": "1.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician is trying to repair a system that will not boot and needs to rebuild the boot configuration database (BCD). Which command should they execute in the Windows Recovery Environment?", "correct_short": "bootrec /rebuildbcd", "explanation": "OBJ 1.5 (Operating Systems): The 'bootrec /rebuildbcd' command is used in the Windows Recovery Environment to scan for missing Windows installations and rebuild the Boot Configuration Database.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 13 } ], "options": [ "sfc /scannow", "bootrec /fixmbr", "chkdsk /f", "bootrec /rebuildbcd" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.5-2", "obj": "1.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which command-line utility should a technician use to verify the integrity of all protected Windows system files and immediately replace incorrect versions with correct ones?", "correct_short": "sfc /scannow", "explanation": "OBJ 1.5 (Operating Systems): The System File Checker ('sfc /scannow') utility scans the integrity of all protected system files and restores corrupted files from a cached copy.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 14 } ], "options": [ "diskpart", "chkdsk /r", "gpupdate /force", "sfc /scannow" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.5-3", "obj": "1.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "An administrator wants to clear the DNS resolver cache on a Windows workstation to resolve out-of-date records. Which command should they use?", "correct_short": "ipconfig /flushdns", "explanation": "OBJ 1.5 (Operating Systems): The 'ipconfig /flushdns' command clears the local DNS resolver cache, which forces the system to request updated IP addresses for domain names.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 15 } ], "options": [ "netstat -ano", "ipconfig /flushdns", "ipconfig /renew", "nslookup" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.6-1", "obj": "1.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user is visually impaired and needs to increase the size of the font and configure the 'Narrator' and 'Magnifier' tools. Which Windows Settings category should they access?", "correct_short": "Ease of Access", "explanation": "OBJ 1.6 (Operating Systems): The 'Ease of Access' settings menu contains accessibility tools like Narrator, Magnifier, and high contrast options to assist users with disabilities.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 16 } ], "options": [ "Ease of Access", "Privacy", "Personalization", "Update & Security" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.6-2", "obj": "1.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Where in the Windows Settings app should a user navigate to configure 'Location, camera, and microphone' permissions for specific apps?", "correct_short": "Privacy", "explanation": "OBJ 1.6 (Operating Systems): The 'Privacy' settings page governs data collection and app permissions, allowing users to allow or deny access to devices like the location service, camera, and microphone.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 17 } ], "options": [ "Devices", "Privacy", "Network & Internet", "System" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.6-3", "obj": "1.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which Windows configuration menu provides options to 'View hidden files' and 'Hide extensions'?", "correct_short": "File Explorer Options", "explanation": "OBJ 1.6 (Operating Systems): The 'File Explorer Options' menu contains the settings to manage how files are displayed, including the ability to view hidden files and show or hide file extensions.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 18 } ], "options": [ "Administrative Tools", "Devices and Printers", "System Configuration", "File Explorer Options" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.7-1", "obj": "1.7", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What is the proper Universal Naming Convention (UNC) syntax used to identify the path of a network resource in Windows File Explorer?", "correct_short": "\\\\server\\share", "explanation": "OBJ 1.7 (Operating Systems): Windows uses the Universal Naming Convention (UNC) syntax, formatted as \\\\server\\share, to address network hosts and shared folder resources.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 19 } ], "options": [ "//server/share", "server://share", "C:\\server\\share", "\\\\server\\share" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.7-2", "obj": "1.7", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "When a user connects to a new network in Windows, which network profile type should they select to ensure the Windows Defender Firewall blocks all incoming connections and makes the host undiscoverable?", "correct_short": "Public", "explanation": "OBJ 1.7 (Operating Systems): If the network profile is set to 'Public', Windows Firewall is configured to block all access and make the host undiscoverable to protect it on untrusted networks.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 20 } ], "options": [ "Workgroup", "Public", "Private", "Domain" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.7-3", "obj": "1.7", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A client PC needs to forward its Internet traffic through a corporate caching server. If the server does not support automatic configuration, what must the technician manually configure in the Windows 'Network & Internet' proxy settings?", "correct_short": "The IP address and TCP port of the proxy server", "explanation": "OBJ 1.7 (Operating Systems): If a proxy does not autoconfigure, each client must be manually configured with the IP address and TCP port used to forward traffic to the proxy server.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 21 } ], "options": [ "The IP address and TCP port of the proxy server", "The Wi-Fi SSID and WPA3 passphrase", "The MAC address and subnet mask", "The subnet prefix length and gateway" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.8-1", "obj": "1.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which macOS feature is responsible for providing full-disk encryption to protect data against unauthorized access if the storage drive is physically removed?", "correct_short": "FileVault", "explanation": "OBJ 1.8 (Operating Systems): FileVault is the built-in macOS utility that encrypts disk data to protect against unauthorized access if the disk is removed or stolen.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 22 } ], "options": [ "Disk Utility", "Keychain", "Time Machine", "FileVault" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.8-2", "obj": "1.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user's macOS application has become unresponsive and displays the spinning wait cursor. Which keyboard shortcut should the user press to open the 'Force Quit' dialog?", "correct_short": "COMMAND+OPTION+ESC", "explanation": "OBJ 1.8 (Operating Systems): If an app is unresponsive in macOS, the user can force the application to close and restart by pressing the COMMAND+OPTION+ESC shortcut.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 23 } ], "options": [ "COMMAND+OPTION+ESC", "COMMAND+SPACE", "SHIFT+PAGEUP", "CTRL+ALT+DELETE" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.8-3", "obj": "1.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which macOS tool allows users to quickly search for and locate files, folders, and applications by clicking a menu bar icon or pressing COMMAND+SPACE?", "correct_short": "Spotlight", "explanation": "OBJ 1.8 (Operating Systems): Spotlight Search is the macOS feature used to find almost anything on the system, quickly activated via the menu bar magnifying glass or COMMAND+SPACE.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 24 } ], "options": [ "Mission Control", "Spotlight", "Finder", "Safari" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.9-1", "obj": "1.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which Linux command is used to change the owner or the group associated with a specific file or directory?", "correct_short": "chown", "explanation": "OBJ 1.9 (Operating Systems): The 'chown' command in Linux is used specifically to change the file owner and group ownership settings.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 25 } ], "options": [ "chown", "grep", "pwd", "chmod" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.9-2", "obj": "1.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician is managing software on a Linux system and needs to install, update, or remove application packages. Which of the following commands are commonly used for this package management task?", "correct_short": "apt and dnf", "explanation": "OBJ 1.9 (Operating Systems): Different Linux distributions use different package managers, with 'apt' (Advanced Package Tool) and 'dnf' (Dandified YUM) being the common tools used to install and manage software packages.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 26 } ], "options": [ "su and sudo", "fsck and mount", "grep and find", "apt and dnf" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.9-3", "obj": "1.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "In a Linux terminal, which command should a technician use to search for files and directories based on specific criteria such as name, size, or permissions?", "correct_short": "find", "explanation": "OBJ 1.9 (Operating Systems): The 'find' command searches the filesystem for files matching specific criteria, such as name patterns, sizes, owners, or permission sets.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 27 } ], "options": [ "ls", "find", "cat", "top" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.10-1", "obj": "1.10", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "When a technician installs a standard desktop application on a Windows workstation using an MSI setup installer, what level of system privileges is typically required?", "correct_short": "Administrator privileges", "explanation": "OBJ 1.10 (Operating Systems): An MSI installer writes to protected locations like Program Files, HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE, and the Windows Installer service, so UAC will prompt for administrator credentials before the install can proceed. Standard user accounts can launch and use installed apps but cannot complete a system-wide MSI install. Guest is an even more restricted account intended for temporary, unprivileged sessions, and 'anonymous' is not a Windows interactive-logon class at all (the term refers to unauthenticated network access like anonymous FTP).", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 28 } ], "options": [ "Administrator privileges", "Standard user privileges", "Guest privileges", "Anonymous privileges" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.10-2", "obj": "1.10", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A developer provides an application setup file packaged with a '.dmg' extension. Which operating system is this installation file designed for?", "correct_short": "macOS", "explanation": "OBJ 1.10 (Operating Systems): Applications for macOS are commonly packaged using the DMG (.dmg) disk image or PKG (.pkg) formats for installation.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 29 } ], "options": [ "Linux", "Windows", "Chrome OS", "macOS" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.10-3", "obj": "1.10", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user attempts to install an application, but the setup program displays an error stating 'RTX features are not available for this device.' What is the most likely cause of this installation failure?", "correct_short": "The computer's graphics adapter does not meet the minimum hardware requirements.", "explanation": "OBJ 1.10 (Operating Systems): If an application requires specific GPU features like RTX and the system lacks them, the installation will halt because the hardware graphics adapter does not meet the application's minimum system requirements.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 30 } ], "options": [ "The computer does not have enough available RAM.", "The computer's graphics adapter does not meet the minimum hardware requirements.", "The application requires an external hardware authentication token.", "The system is running a 32-bit operating system." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.11-1", "obj": "1.11", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What is the primary benefit of configuring identity synchronization between a company's on-premises Active Directory and their cloud-based productivity tools?", "correct_short": "Users can access both local and cloud resources using a single set of credentials.", "explanation": "OBJ 1.11 (Operating Systems): Identity synchronization allows users to utilize a single set of credentials to seamlessly log into both local on-premises resources and cloud applications, simplifying access and management.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 31 } ], "options": [ "Users can access both local and cloud resources using a single set of credentials.", "It prevents users from installing local applications on their workstations.", "It provides a free tier of unlimited cloud storage for all users.", "It automatically converts all local desktop applications into web-based apps." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.11-2", "obj": "1.11", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which cloud computing model best describes productivity software suites like Microsoft 365 or Google Workspace, where the application is hosted centrally and accessed over the internet via a subscription?", "correct_short": "Software as a Service (SaaS)", "explanation": "OBJ 1.11 (Operating Systems): Software as a Service (SaaS) delivers fully functional software applications, like email and office suites, over the internet on a subscription or pay-as-you-go basis.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 32 } ], "options": [ "Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)", "Software as a Service (SaaS)", "Desktop as a Service (DaaS)", "Platform as a Service (PaaS)" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-1.11-3", "obj": "1.11", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "When using a cloud-based storage application like Microsoft OneDrive, what does a green checkmark icon next to a local file visually indicate?", "correct_short": "The file has successfully completed synchronization with the cloud storage.", "explanation": "OBJ 1.11 (Operating Systems): In OneDrive's File Explorer overlay icons, a solid green checkmark means the file is fully synced — the local copy matches the version on the cloud server. An in-progress upload shows the circular blue sync arrows, not a checkmark. OneDrive does not display a checkmark for quarantined or encrypted files; quarantine is handled by antivirus, and encryption status is indicated by a padlock or by the Encrypting File System attribute, not by the sync overlay.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 33 } ], "options": [ "The file contains a virus and has been quarantined.", "The file is currently being uploaded to the cloud server.", "The file has successfully completed synchronization with the cloud storage.", "The file is encrypted and requires a password to open." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.1-1", "obj": "2.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which physical security measure is designed to prevent tailgating by requiring a person to pass through one door into an enclosed space before opening a second door?", "correct_short": "Access control vestibule", "explanation": "OBJ 2.1 (Security): An access control vestibule restricts access to one person at a time by using one gateway that leads to an enclosed space protected by another barrier.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 34 } ], "options": [ "Security guard", "Badge reader", "Access control vestibule", "Video surveillance" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.1-2", "obj": "2.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which logical security concept states that a user should only be granted the minimum possible rights necessary to perform their job?", "correct_short": "Principle of least privilege", "explanation": "OBJ 2.1 (Security): The principle of least privilege ensures users only have the exact access they need to perform their duties and nothing more.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 35 } ], "options": [ "Access control lists", "Just-in-time access", "Principle of least privilege", "Implicit deny" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.1-3", "obj": "2.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which of the following is an example of an inherence factor used in multifactor authentication?", "correct_short": "A fingerprint scan", "explanation": "OBJ 2.1 (Security): In multifactor authentication, an inherence factor relies on a physical characteristic of the user, such as a fingerprint or facial recognition scan.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 36 } ], "options": [ "A hardware token", "A smart card", "A fingerprint scan", "A one-time passcode" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.2-1", "obj": "2.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which Windows security feature helps prevent unauthorized system changes by prompting the user for explicit consent or administrator credentials before executing a task with elevated privileges?", "correct_short": "User Account Control (UAC)", "explanation": "OBJ 2.2 (Security): User Account Control prompts the user for permission before allowing administrative changes to the operating system.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 37 } ], "options": [ "User Account Control (UAC)", "Encrypting File System (EFS)", "BitLocker", "Windows Defender Firewall" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.2-2", "obj": "2.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "When configuring NTFS permissions on a Windows file server, what happens when a user is subject to conflicting permissions where one group grants an explicit allow and another group applies an explicit deny?", "correct_short": "The explicit deny overrides any granted permissions.", "explanation": "OBJ 2.2 (Security): In Windows file security, an explicit deny rule is the most restrictive and will always override any conflicting allow permissions.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 38 } ], "options": [ "The user is granted read-only access.", "The system prompts the administrator to resolve the conflict.", "The explicit allow overrides the explicit deny.", "The explicit deny overrides any granted permissions." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.2-3", "obj": "2.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A company wants to configure passwordless login on Windows workstations using facial recognition or a PIN. Which Windows login option should the technician enable?", "correct_short": "Windows Hello", "explanation": "OBJ 2.2 (Security): Windows Hello is the built-in Microsoft feature that provides passwordless login options such as facial recognition, fingerprint scanning, or a PIN.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 39 } ], "options": [ "Kerberos", "Active Directory Domain Services", "Windows Hello", "Local Administrator account" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.3-1", "obj": "2.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which wireless security protocol replaces the vulnerable pre-shared key 4-way handshake with the stronger Simultaneous Authentication of Equals protocol?", "correct_short": "Wi-Fi Protected Access 3", "explanation": "OBJ 2.3 (Security): WPA3 improves upon older wireless security standards by using Simultaneous Authentication of Equals to protect against key recovery attacks.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 40 } ], "options": [ "Wi-Fi Protected Access 2", "Temporal Key Integrity Protocol", "Wi-Fi Protected Access 3", "Wired Equivalent Privacy" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.3-2", "obj": "2.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which enterprise authentication protocol is primarily utilized to authenticate administrative access to network devices such as routers and switches?", "correct_short": "Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus", "explanation": "OBJ 2.3 (Security): TACACS+ is a centralized authentication protocol developed by Cisco that is frequently used for managing administrative access to network equipment.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 41 } ], "options": [ "Kerberos", "Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service", "Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus", "Advanced Encryption Standard" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.3-3", "obj": "2.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which highly secure encryption standard is typically deployed alongside the WPA2 wireless security protocol to protect data-in-transit?", "correct_short": "Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)", "explanation": "OBJ 2.3 (Security): The Advanced Encryption Standard is the standard strong encryption cipher used to secure data traffic on WPA2 wireless networks.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 42 } ], "options": [ "Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service (RADIUS)", "Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)", "Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)", "Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.4-1", "obj": "2.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user reports that they cannot access their files, and a message on their screen is demanding a cryptocurrency payment to unlock the data. Which type of malware has infected the system?", "correct_short": "Ransomware", "explanation": "OBJ 2.4 (Security): Ransomware is a specific malware payload that encrypts the victim's files and demands financial payment for the decryption key.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 43 } ], "options": [ "Spyware", "Ransomware", "Keylogger", "Fileless malware" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.4-2", "obj": "2.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which type of malware operates entirely in the host system memory using legitimate scripting environments like PowerShell without writing an executable image to the disk?", "correct_short": "Fileless malware", "explanation": "OBJ 2.4 (Security): Fileless malware avoids traditional detection by operating directly in memory via built-in tools like PowerShell rather than dropping an executable file.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 44 } ], "options": [ "Boot sector virus", "Adware", "Fileless malware", "Trojan" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.4-3", "obj": "2.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What type of modern security software monitors endpoint behavior to detect and mitigate advanced malware and insider threats that evade traditional antivirus signatures?", "correct_short": "Endpoint detection and response", "explanation": "OBJ 2.4 (Security): Endpoint detection and response tools continuously monitor workstation behavior to identify and mitigate advanced threats that traditional antivirus might miss.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 45 } ], "options": [ "Unified Threat Management", "Email security gateway", "Endpoint detection and response", "Software firewall" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.5-1", "obj": "2.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A threat actor sets up a rogue wireless access point with the same SSID as the local coffee shop network to intercept user traffic. What type of threat is this?", "correct_short": "Evil twin", "explanation": "OBJ 2.5 (Security): An evil twin is a rogue wireless access point that spoofs a legitimate SSID to trick users into connecting and revealing sensitive data.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 46 } ], "options": [ "Evil twin", "Business email compromise", "Denial of service", "Cross-site scripting" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.5-2", "obj": "2.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "An attacker sends fraudulent SMS text messages to mobile users, pretending to be from their bank and urging them to click a malicious link. What is this social engineering technique called?", "correct_short": "Smishing", "explanation": "OBJ 2.5 (Security): Smishing is a form of phishing that specifically uses SMS text messaging to deliver malicious links or social engineering requests.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 47 } ], "options": [ "Smishing", "Vishing", "Shoulder surfing", "Whaling" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.5-3", "obj": "2.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which type of attack exploits poorly written web applications by inserting malicious code into input fields to manipulate the backend database?", "correct_short": "Structured Query Language injection", "explanation": "OBJ 2.5 (Security): A Structured Query Language injection attack occurs when a threat actor inputs malicious commands into a web form to extract or manipulate database information.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 48 } ], "options": [ "Dictionary attack", "Structured Query Language injection", "Cross-site scripting", "Zero-day attack" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.6-1", "obj": "2.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "According to the CompTIA malware removal best practices, what should a technician do immediately after quarantining an infected Windows system?", "correct_short": "Disable System Restore in Windows", "explanation": "OBJ 2.6 (Security): The CompTIA seven-step malware removal order is investigate/verify, quarantine, disable System Restore, remediate, schedule scans/updates, re-enable System Restore, and educate the end user. Disabling System Restore comes right after quarantine because restore points can harbor a copy of the malware that would simply reinfect the system after cleanup. Updating anti-malware and remediating happen during step 4 (remediate), and educating the end user is the final step — none of those come second.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 49 } ], "options": [ "Update anti-malware software", "Educate the end user", "Remediate the infected systems", "Disable System Restore in Windows" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.6-2", "obj": "2.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "An IT technician has successfully investigated and verified that a user's workstation is infected with a Trojan. What is the very next step they must take in the malware removal process?", "correct_short": "Quarantine the infected system", "explanation": "OBJ 2.6 (Security): Immediately after verifying malware symptoms, the technician must quarantine the system to stop the malware from spreading across the network.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 50 } ], "options": [ "Quarantine the infected system", "Schedule future scans and run updates", "Remediate the infected system using safe mode", "Enable System Restore and create a restore point" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.6-3", "obj": "2.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "After a technician has fully remediated an infected system, updated the anti-malware software, and scheduled future scans, what step should they perform next?", "correct_short": "Enable System Restore and create a new restore point", "explanation": "OBJ 2.6 (Security): In the CompTIA seven-step removal procedure, step 6 is to re-enable System Restore on Windows and capture a fresh restore point so that future rollbacks land on a known-clean baseline. Reconnecting to the network and educating the user happen after that final restore point is created. Reimaging the drive would be a fallback when remediation fails — not a routine next step after a successful cleanup — and disabling the local administrator account is a hardening task unrelated to the malware removal workflow.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 51 } ], "options": [ "Connect the system back to the network", "Reimage the hard drive completely", "Enable System Restore and create a new restore point", "Disable the local administrator account" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.7-1", "obj": "2.7", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which hardening technique restricts the execution of malicious software on a host regardless of what the user account privileges allow?", "correct_short": "Execution control", "explanation": "OBJ 2.7 (Security): Execution control refers to logical security technologies designed to prevent malicious software from running on a host regardless of user privileges.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 52 } ], "options": [ "Failed attempts lockout", "Execution control", "Account expiration", "BitLocker To Go" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.7-2", "obj": "2.7", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which end-user best practice helps protect against unauthorized physical access to a workstation when an employee steps away from their desk?", "correct_short": "Using screensaver locks", "explanation": "OBJ 2.7 (Security): A password-protected screensaver (or Win+L) immediately locks the active session so a walk-up attacker cannot use the still-logged-in account — this is the specific control for an unattended workstation. Data-at-rest encryption like BitLocker protects the drive contents if the device is powered off and stolen, but does nothing while the user is signed in. A password manager secures the user's stored credentials, not the desktop session. Disabling the guest account is a good general hardening step but does not stop someone from using the logged-in user's own session.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 53 } ], "options": [ "Implementing data-at-rest encryption", "Using a password manager", "Disabling the guest account", "Using screensaver locks" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.7-3", "obj": "2.7", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "To harden a workstation and restrict unauthorized administrative changes, which built-in account should be disabled according to best practices?", "correct_short": "Guest account", "explanation": "OBJ 2.7 (Security): The built-in Guest account allows passwordless or low-friction access and is a well-known attacker target, so Windows hardening guides recommend disabling it (it is disabled by default on modern Windows, but verifying is a standard checklist item). The 'Power user' group still exists for legacy compatibility but is effectively equivalent to standard user on modern Windows and is not the hardening focus here. Standard user and Microsoft accounts are how normal users sign in day-to-day — disabling them would block legitimate work, not harden the system.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 54 } ], "options": [ "Power user account", "Microsoft account", "Guest account", "Standard user account" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.8-1", "obj": "2.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What feature can be executed from a Mobile Device Management (MDM) platform to remove corporate accounts and files while leaving an employee's personal apps and data intact?", "correct_short": "Enterprise wipe", "explanation": "OBJ 2.8 (Security): For BYOD devices enrolled in MDM, an enterprise wipe removes corporate data while leaving personal files and settings intact.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 55 } ], "options": [ "Enterprise wipe", "Hard reset", "Remote locator", "Factory wipe" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.8-2", "obj": "2.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which mobile device hardening technique relies on physical characteristics like facial recognition or a fingerprint to unlock the device?", "correct_short": "Biometric screen lock", "explanation": "OBJ 2.8 (Security): Biometric screen locks use physical characteristics such as a fingerprint or facial recognition to securely unlock mobile devices.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 56 } ], "options": [ "Swipe lock", "Biometric screen lock", "PIN code", "Pattern lock" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.8-3", "obj": "2.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "If a corporate-owned smartphone is irretrievably lost or stolen, which action should an administrator take to protect the stored data and credentials?", "correct_short": "Initiate a remote wipe", "explanation": "OBJ 2.8 (Security): A remote wipe pushed from the MDM console performs a factory reset on the device the next time it connects to the network, erasing user data, cached credentials, and stored tokens so the thief cannot extract them. USB selective suspend is a Windows laptop power-management setting and has nothing to do with mobile data protection. Disabling location services on the admin side does not actually change the device's settings and would hurt recovery efforts. Changing a default administrator password is a hardening step for network gear, not a response to a lost handset.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 57 } ], "options": [ "Enable USB selective suspend", "Disable location services", "Initiate a remote wipe", "Change the default administrator password" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.9-1", "obj": "2.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which data destruction method physically destroys a hard drive by using a powerful electromagnet to render the magnetic media unreadable?", "correct_short": "Degaussing", "explanation": "OBJ 2.9 (Security): Degaussing destroys data on magnetic hard drives by using a powerful electromagnet to disrupt the magnetic patterns.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 58 } ], "options": [ "Drilling", "Degaussing", "Shredding", "Incineration" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.9-2", "obj": "2.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "When an organization outsources the disposal of old hard drives to a third-party vendor, what document must the vendor provide to prove the data was properly destroyed?", "correct_short": "Certificate of destruction", "explanation": "OBJ 2.9 (Security): A certificate of destruction or recycling is required when outsourcing disposal to prove compliance with regulatory and environmental requirements.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 59 } ], "options": [ "Material safety data sheet", "Certificate of destruction", "Standard operating procedure", "End-user license agreement" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.9-3", "obj": "2.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which of the following methods is a physical destruction technique that involves breaking a hard drive into tiny pieces?", "correct_short": "Shredding", "explanation": "OBJ 2.9 (Security): Industrial shredders feed the entire drive through hardened cutters that reduce the platters and circuit board to small fragments, so no surviving piece holds a recoverable sector. Wiping is a software sanitization method (overwriting sectors) — the drive stays physically intact, which is why it does not satisfy the 'physical destruction' requirement. Degaussing destroys data using a strong magnetic field rather than mechanical breakage, and on SSDs it does nothing because flash memory is not magnetic. Low-level formatting rewrites sector structures and is again software-based, not physical destruction.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 60 } ], "options": [ "Wiping", "Degaussing", "Shredding", "Low-level formatting" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.10-1", "obj": "2.10", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which feature on a SOHO router allows devices to automatically open firewall ports but is considered a major security risk and should typically be disabled?", "correct_short": "Universal Plug and Play", "explanation": "OBJ 2.10 (Security): Universal Plug and Play allows devices to automatically configure firewall ports but should be disabled because malicious software can exploit it.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 61 } ], "options": [ "Port forwarding", "MAC filtering", "IP filtering", "Universal Plug and Play" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.10-2", "obj": "2.10", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "When configuring a wireless network for maximum security, what is the best encryption protocol to select for client devices that support it?", "correct_short": "WPA3", "explanation": "OBJ 2.10 (Security): WPA3 replaces the WPA2 four-way handshake with SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals), which resists offline dictionary attacks and provides forward secrecy — so it is the strongest option to choose on the router's wireless security page. WPA2 with TKIP is the weakest WPA2 mode because TKIP is deprecated and known to be breakable; pick AES, not TKIP, if WPA2 is the only option. WEP is the legacy RC4-based standard and is trivially crackable in minutes. MAC address filtering is an access-control feature, not an encryption protocol — it leaves traffic in cleartext over the air.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 62 } ], "options": [ "WPA2 with TKIP", "MAC address filtering", "WPA3", "WEP" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.10-3", "obj": "2.10", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "On a SOHO router, what setting maps a specific external port to an internal IP address to allow internet traffic to reach a specific internal server?", "correct_short": "Port forwarding", "explanation": "OBJ 2.10 (Security): Port forwarding, or port mapping, opens a specific port on the firewall and directs incoming traffic on that port to a specific internal IP address.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 63 } ], "options": [ "Port forwarding", "Screened subnet", "DHCP reservation", "Disabling SSID broadcast" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.11-1", "obj": "2.11", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which browser security feature prevents the browser from saving local history, cookies, or temporary files generated during a browsing session?", "correct_short": "Private-browsing mode", "explanation": "OBJ 2.11 (Security): Private-browsing mode (Incognito in Chrome, InPrivate in Edge) routes the session through a sandboxed profile that is discarded on close, so history, cookies, form data, and cached files are not written to the user's regular profile. Proxy settings change where traffic is routed, not what local data is retained. Valid certificates indicate server identity and TLS trust — they say nothing about local browser storage. Secure DNS (DoH/DoT) encrypts DNS lookups in transit but still leaves normal browser history on disk.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 64 } ], "options": [ "Proxy settings", "Private-browsing mode", "Valid certificates", "Secure DNS" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.11-2", "obj": "2.11", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "How can a user visually verify that their connection to a secure website is encrypted and trusted by the browser?", "correct_short": "By checking for a valid digital certificate and padlock icon", "explanation": "OBJ 2.11 (Security): Secure connections use valid digital certificates, which the browser typically indicates with a padlock icon in the address bar.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 65 } ], "options": [ "By running a ping command to the web server", "By checking for a valid digital certificate and padlock icon", "By clearing the browser cache", "By ensuring the site uses port 80" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-2.11-3", "obj": "2.11", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user wants to block intrusive advertisements while browsing the internet. Which browser feature management option should they install from a trusted source?", "correct_short": "An ad blocker extension", "explanation": "OBJ 2.11 (Security): An ad blocker is a browser plug-in or extension that uses filter lists to drop ad-network requests and hide ad containers in the page DOM before they render. A proxy server routes traffic through an intermediary host and may filter content at the network level, but it is infrastructure, not a browser feature the user installs from an extension store. A digital certificate verifies a server's TLS identity. A password manager stores and autofills credentials — neither one filters page content.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 66 } ], "options": [ "A proxy server", "A digital certificate", "An ad blocker extension", "A password manager" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-3.1-1", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What is one of the most common causes of a proprietary crash screen, such as the Blue Screen of Death (BSOD), in a Windows system?", "correct_short": "Hardware device or driver problems", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1 (Software Troubleshooting): The BSOD indicates serious system faults, which are often caused by system memory faults, hardware device issues, or corrupt driver problems.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 67 } ], "options": [ "Missing user account profile pictures", "Hardware device or driver problems", "Unconfigured location services", "An outdated web browser" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-3.1-2", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "If a computer displays a 'bootable device not found' error during startup, what is the most likely cause?", "correct_short": "The boot sector code or Master Boot Record is corrupted.", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1 (Software Troubleshooting): If the boot device is not found or fails to load, it often points to a corrupted boot sector, Master Boot Record, or missing OS boot files.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 68 } ], "options": [ "A background service failed to start.", "The monitor is experiencing display burn-in.", "The system time is experiencing time drift.", "The boot sector code or Master Boot Record is corrupted." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-3.1-3", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "When a user reports that a specific application keeps crashing, what is the priority before attempting to reinstall the software?", "correct_short": "Try to preserve any data that was being processed.", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1 (Software Troubleshooting): If an application crashes, the immediate priority is to try to preserve any user data that was being processed using recovery files or cloud backups.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 69 } ], "options": [ "Format the system volume.", "Try to preserve any data that was being processed.", "Boot into the Windows Recovery Environment immediately.", "Disable the Windows Defender Firewall." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-3.2-1", "obj": "3.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user is attempting to install a new application on their mobile device but the process continually fails. What should a technician check first?", "correct_short": "Check if the mobile operating system requires a firmware update or lacks storage space.", "explanation": "OBJ 3.2 (Software Troubleshooting): If an application fails to install or update, it is often due to insufficient storage space or an incompatible, outdated mobile OS version.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 70 } ], "options": [ "Check if the mobile operating system requires a firmware update or lacks storage space.", "Ensure the device has a wired ethernet connection.", "Verify the device is not connected to a Bluetooth headset.", "Replace the battery with a known good component." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-3.2-2", "obj": "3.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user complains that their smartphone battery is draining extremely fast, even when not actively using the device. What is a common troubleshooting step?", "correct_short": "Investigate the settings app to identify applications consuming excessive background power.", "explanation": "OBJ 3.2 (Software Troubleshooting): When troubleshooting battery life issues, checking the device settings to find and restrict apps running heavily in the background is a primary diagnostic step.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 71 } ], "options": [ "Perform a remote enterprise wipe.", "Disable all cellular data permanently.", "Investigate the settings app to identify applications consuming excessive background power.", "Reinstall the mobile device digitizer." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-3.2-3", "obj": "3.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user's mobile device screen fails to switch to landscape mode when turned sideways. Which setting should the technician verify?", "correct_short": "Check the notification bar or Control Center to ensure the rotation lock is not enabled.", "explanation": "OBJ 3.2 (Software Troubleshooting): Rotation lock is a one-tap toggle in the iOS Control Center or Android quick-settings panel that overrides the accelerometer; users hit it accidentally all the time, so verifying it is off is the cheapest first step. Volume limits affect audio, not screen orientation. A dirty fingerprint scanner causes authentication failures, not autorotate problems. The Wi-Fi band the device is on is unrelated to onboard motion sensors.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 72 } ], "options": [ "Verify the volume limits are not restricted.", "Check the notification bar or Control Center to ensure the rotation lock is not enabled.", "Ensure the biometric fingerprint scanner is clean.", "Ensure the device is connected to a 5 GHz Wi-Fi network." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-3.3-1", "obj": "3.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What is a major security concern if a user performs a root access or 'jailbreak' modification on their mobile device?", "correct_short": "It bypasses the built-in OS security restrictions, making the device highly vulnerable to malicious applications.", "explanation": "OBJ 3.3 (Software Troubleshooting): Rooting or jailbreaking a device bypasses manufacturer security restrictions, leaving the OS vulnerable to malware and unauthorized app installations.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 73 } ], "options": [ "It permanently locks the device to a single cellular provider.", "It prevents the device from ever connecting to a Wi-Fi network.", "It automatically encrypts all data with an unrecoverable password.", "It bypasses the built-in OS security restrictions, making the device highly vulnerable to malicious applications." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-3.3-2", "obj": "3.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user downloads an application from an unofficial third-party website and suddenly experiences high network traffic and degraded response times. What is the most likely issue?", "correct_short": "The downloaded app is an unauthorized or malicious application spoofing a legitimate one.", "explanation": "OBJ 3.3 (Software Troubleshooting): Applications from unofficial sources bypass official store vetting and frequently contain malware, leading to symptoms like high network traffic and poor performance.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 74 } ], "options": [ "The downloaded app is an unauthorized or malicious application spoofing a legitimate one.", "The device is attempting to connect to an external display.", "The device is performing a legitimate background OS update.", "The device's cellular antenna is physically damaged." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-3.3-3", "obj": "3.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which action should users take to prevent criminals from discovering their home address or vacation plans through online photo uploads?", "correct_short": "Remove geotagging location information from the images before posting them.", "explanation": "OBJ 3.3 (Software Troubleshooting): Geotagged photos contain hidden location metadata that can leak personal information, so users should remove geotagging before posting images online.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 75 } ], "options": [ "Remove geotagging location information from the images before posting them.", "Compress the images using a ZIP archive.", "Only upload photos using a cellular connection.", "Convert all images to black and white." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-3.4-1", "obj": "3.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "An employee notices that several personal files on their workstation have been unexpectedly renamed and they can no longer access them. What does this symptom strongly indicate?", "correct_short": "A malware infection, such as ransomware.", "explanation": "OBJ 3.4 (Software Troubleshooting): Altered, missing, or inexplicably renamed files, along with the inability to access them, are classic symptoms of a malware or ransomware infection.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 76 } ], "options": [ "A malware infection, such as ransomware.", "A failing power supply unit.", "A corrupted display driver.", "An expired software license agreement." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-3.4-2", "obj": "3.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user tries to visit a secure banking website but receives a browser warning that the site certificate is invalid. What type of security threat might this represent?", "correct_short": "An on-path attack attempting to intercept traffic using a spoofed certificate.", "explanation": "OBJ 3.4 (Software Troubleshooting): An on-path (formerly man-in-the-middle) attack inserts a rogue proxy between the user and the bank; because the attacker cannot present the bank's real private key, the TLS certificate they substitute fails the browser's trust check and triggers the warning. Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a web-app vulnerability that runs malicious script in the user's browser session — it does not generate an invalid-certificate warning. A denial-of-service attack floods a target to make it unavailable; the symptom would be a connection failure, not a bad cert. A brute-force password attack works against login forms and has no effect on the site's TLS certificate.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 77 } ], "options": [ "A cross-site scripting attack on the local hard drive.", "A denial of service attack against the local router.", "A brute-force password attack.", "An on-path attack attempting to intercept traffic using a spoofed certificate." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-3.4-3", "obj": "3.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "When a user searches for a common term, their web browser continually forces them to an unfamiliar website filled with advertisements. What is this symptom called?", "correct_short": "Redirection.", "explanation": "OBJ 3.4 (Software Troubleshooting): Browser redirection is a malware/adware symptom in which the search-provider setting, homepage, or DNS resolver has been hijacked to send the user to a chosen destination instead of the requested one. Port flapping is a networking term for an interface that repeatedly goes up and down — it is not a browser symptom. Phishing is the social-engineering technique of luring users to fake sites via deceptive messages, not the automatic browser-level redirect described here. 'Domain synchronization' is not a recognized A+ term and is a distractor.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 78 } ], "options": [ "Redirection.", "Port flapping.", "Phishing.", "Domain synchronization." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.1-1", "obj": "4.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "In an IT ticketing system, how is a routine, predefined task with a Standard Operating Procedure, such as setting up a new employee workstation, typically categorized?", "correct_short": "Request", "explanation": "OBJ 4.1 (Operational Procedures): Routine tasks that have an existing Standard Operating Procedure are categorized as requests, whereas unexpected errors are categorized as incidents.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 79 } ], "options": [ "Problem", "Request", "Incident", "Emergency change" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.1-2", "obj": "4.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What type of centralized tracking database is used by IT departments to map the relationships and dependencies between hardware and software assets?", "correct_short": "Configuration management database (CMDB)", "explanation": "OBJ 4.1 (Operational Procedures): A configuration management database (CMDB) is an asset management tool used to track inventory, asset relationships, and their configurations across the enterprise.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 80 } ], "options": [ "Material safety data sheet (MSDS)", "Knowledge base article", "Configuration management database (CMDB)", "Service-level agreement (SLA)" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.1-3", "obj": "4.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which document establishes a formal contract regarding the expected response times, uptime, and performance metrics between an IT service provider and a customer?", "correct_short": "Service-level agreement (SLA)", "explanation": "OBJ 4.1 (Operational Procedures): An SLA is the contractual document that quantifies measurable commitments — uptime percentages, ticket response/resolution windows, escalation paths — and the penalties that apply when the provider misses them. A standard operating procedure (SOP) is an internal step-by-step instruction for how to perform routine work, not a customer-facing performance contract. An EULA is the license between a software vendor and an end user governing how the software may be used. A CMDB is an inventory database tracking assets and their relationships — none of these set service performance expectations.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 81 } ], "options": [ "Service-level agreement (SLA)", "Standard operating procedure (SOP)", "End-user license agreement (EULA)", "Configuration management database (CMDB)" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.2-1", "obj": "4.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "During a scheduled server upgrade, a critical error occurs that brings down the network. Which document dictates the exact steps the technician must take to restore the system to its previous working state?", "correct_short": "Rollback plan", "explanation": "OBJ 4.2 (Operational Procedures): A rollback plan is a mandatory part of documented change management processes that outlines how to reverse a failed change and safely restore the original configuration.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 82 } ], "options": [ "Rollback plan", "Risk analysis", "End-user acceptance form", "Sandbox test report" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.2-2", "obj": "4.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "In a formal IT change management process, what entity is primarily responsible for evaluating the risk analysis and business impact before approving or denying a proposed network change?", "correct_short": "Change Advisory Board", "explanation": "OBJ 4.2 (Operational Procedures): The Change Advisory Board (CAB) assesses the business case, technical merits, and potential risks of a change plan before granting approval for implementation.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 83 } ], "options": [ "Tier 1 Help Desk", "Change Advisory Board", "End users", "Third-party vendors" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.2-3", "obj": "4.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A critical vulnerability is actively being exploited on a company firewall, and the IT team must apply a patch immediately without waiting for the weekly maintenance window. What type of change is this?", "correct_short": "Emergency change", "explanation": "OBJ 4.2 (Operational Procedures): An emergency change is reserved for situations like active exploitation or service outages — it uses an accelerated approval path (often a single on-call CAB member) and is fully documented after the fact rather than weeks in advance. A standard change is a pre-approved, low-risk routine task that follows a known SOP (such as setting up a new user account); it does not require new approval. A normal change is the default category that goes through full CAB review during planning, which is exactly what the scenario does not have time for. 'Routine change' is not a formal ITIL category and is essentially a synonym for standard change.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 84 } ], "options": [ "Standard change", "Emergency change", "Routine change", "Normal change" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.3-1", "obj": "4.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which backup method backs up all newly created or modified files since the last full backup and requires only two sets of data to perform a complete system restore?", "correct_short": "Differential backup", "explanation": "OBJ 4.3 (Operational Procedures): A differential backup copies everything changed since the last full backup, meaning a restoration only requires the last full backup and the latest differential backup.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 85 } ], "options": [ "Incremental backup", "Grandfather-father-son backup", "Synthetic full backup", "Differential backup" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.3-2", "obj": "4.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "To protect against natural disasters and localized hardware failures, an organization follows the 3-2-1 backup rule. What does the '1' in this industry-standard rule represent?", "correct_short": "One copy of the data must be kept offline and offsite.", "explanation": "OBJ 4.3 (Operational Procedures): The 3-2-1 backup rule recommends having three copies of your data across two different media types, with at least one copy stored offline and offsite.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 86 } ], "options": [ "One full backup must be performed every day.", "One copy of the data must be kept offline and offsite.", "One copy of the data must be encrypted with a 128-bit key.", "One dedicated administrator must oversee the restore process." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.3-3", "obj": "4.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A company suffered a massive ransomware attack that destroyed their primary physical servers. The IT team decides to restore the data to a secure cloud environment instead of the original hardware. What recovery method is this?", "correct_short": "Alternative location recovery", "explanation": "OBJ 4.3 (Operational Procedures): Recovering data to an alternative location, such as a cloud environment or new hardware, is used when the original hardware is destroyed, compromised, or inaccessible.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 87 } ], "options": [ "Overwrite recovery", "Alternative location recovery", "In-place recovery", "Synthetic full recovery" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.4-1", "obj": "4.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Why should an IT technician strictly avoid wearing an electrostatic discharge (ESD) wrist strap when working inside a high-voltage power supply unit or a CRT monitor?", "correct_short": "The strap tethers the technician to the device, increasing the risk of a lethal electrical shock.", "explanation": "OBJ 4.4 (Operational Procedures): An ESD strap connects the technician to the ground, which provides a direct path for high-voltage electricity to travel through their body, posing a lethal shock hazard.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 88 } ], "options": [ "The strap will prevent the technician from properly grounding the chassis.", "The strap will short out the capacitors and destroy the equipment.", "The strap tethers the technician to the device, increasing the risk of a lethal electrical shock.", "The strap will erase the NVRAM on the motherboard." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.4-2", "obj": "4.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician needs to transport a sensitive PC expansion card across an office building. What is the safest way to store and carry the component to protect it from static electricity?", "correct_short": "Inside an antistatic bag", "explanation": "OBJ 4.4 (Operational Procedures): Antistatic bags are specifically designed with a shielding material that protects sensitive electronic components from electrostatic discharge during storage and transport.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 89 } ], "options": [ "Wrapped in a rubber mat", "Inside a sealed plastic bag", "Wrapped in newspaper", "Inside an antistatic bag" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.4-3", "obj": "4.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "To comply with personal safety and hazard mitigation standards, what should an IT specialist use to secure loose network cords running across a busy office floor?", "correct_short": "Cable management tools like covers or zip ties", "explanation": "OBJ 4.4 (Operational Procedures): Proper cable management, such as using cable covers or zip ties, prevents trip hazards and protects the cables from physical damage in high-traffic areas.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 90 } ], "options": [ "Electrostatic discharge straps", "Cable management tools like covers or zip ties", "Antistatic mats", "Surge suppressors" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.5-1", "obj": "4.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician spills a large amount of toner inside a laser printer. Where should they look to find the official manufacturer instructions regarding the health hazards and proper cleanup procedures for this specific chemical?", "correct_short": "The safety data sheet (SDS)", "explanation": "OBJ 4.5 (Operational Procedures): A safety data sheet (SDS) — formerly called a material safety data sheet (MSDS) before the 2015 OSHA/GHS terminology update — is the manufacturer-supplied document that lists the chemical composition, health hazards, first-aid steps, PPE, and required cleanup/disposal method for the substance. An SLA is a service-performance contract between provider and customer and contains no chemical-safety information. An AUP defines how users may use IT systems. A CMDB inventories hardware/software assets and their relationships — none of those documents tell you how to safely clean up spilled toner.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 91 } ], "options": [ "The service-level agreement (SLA)", "The acceptable use policy (AUP)", "The configuration management database (CMDB)", "The safety data sheet (SDS)" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.5-2", "obj": "4.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which local environment control device should be installed to protect critical servers from suddenly losing power during short blackouts and brownouts?", "correct_short": "An uninterruptible power supply (UPS)", "explanation": "OBJ 4.5 (Operational Procedures): A UPS sits inline between utility power and the server; when the input voltage drops or fails, the inverter switches the load to its battery within milliseconds, giving the server time to keep running or shut down cleanly. A surge suppressor only clamps voltage spikes — it provides no battery and offers no protection against a brownout or full power loss. An ESD mat protects components from static during handling and has nothing to do with line power. HVAC controls room temperature and humidity, not the electrical supply.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 92 } ], "options": [ "A surge suppressor", "An electrostatic discharge (ESD) mat", "A heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) unit", "An uninterruptible power supply (UPS)" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.5-3", "obj": "4.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "When performing dust cleanup inside a PC case, what is an important environmental safety consideration regarding the use of compressed air?", "correct_short": "It should only be used in a well-ventilated area because it blows fine dust particles into the air.", "explanation": "OBJ 4.5 (Operational Procedures): Using compressed air to clean dust from equipment blows fine particulates into the atmosphere, so it should be done in a well-ventilated area or outside to avoid creating a respiratory hazard.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 93 } ], "options": [ "It should be sprayed upside down to maximize pressure.", "It must be used alongside an industrial water vacuum.", "It should only be used in a well-ventilated area because it blows fine dust particles into the air.", "It automatically neutralizes electrostatic discharge." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.6-1", "obj": "4.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "During an incident response, which concept ensures that digital evidence is carefully tracked and its integrity is maintained from collection to court presentation?", "correct_short": "Chain of custody", "explanation": "OBJ 4.6 (Operational Procedures): The chain of custody is a documented process that tracks the control, transfer, and preservation of digital evidence to ensure its integrity.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 94 } ], "options": [ "Order of volatility", "End-user license agreement", "Acceptable use policy", "Chain of custody" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.6-2", "obj": "4.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A company is upgrading its software and purchases a license that allows the software to be installed on multiple workstations for employee use. What type of license is this?", "correct_short": "Corporate-use license", "explanation": "OBJ 4.6 (Operational Procedures): A corporate-use license allows an organization to install software on multiple devices for its employees, unlike a single personal-use license.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 95 } ], "options": [ "Open-source license", "Personal-use license", "Corporate-use license", "Digital rights management license" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.6-3", "obj": "4.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which type of regulated data strictly governs how healthcare facilities must protect patients' medical records and laboratory results?", "correct_short": "Protected Health Information (PHI) or Healthcare data", "explanation": "OBJ 4.6 (Operational Procedures): PHI is the HIPAA-defined category covering any individually identifiable health information — diagnoses, test results, treatment records, billing tied to care — and it carries strict access logging, encryption, and breach-notification requirements. PCI data is the payment-card information governed by PCI DSS (card numbers, CVVs); it is regulated, but by the card brands, not for medical records. PII is the broader umbrella for any personally identifying data (SSN, address, DOB) and overlaps with PHI but is not the specific healthcare regime. EULA 'data' is not a data classification at all — a EULA is a software license agreement.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 96 } ], "options": [ "Payment Card Industry (PCI) data", "End-User License Agreement (EULA) data", "Protected Health Information (PHI) or Healthcare data", "Personally Identifiable Information (PII)" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.7-1", "obj": "4.7", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "An IT technician is assisting a frustrated user with a complex software error. What is the most professional way to handle the difficult situation?", "correct_short": "Actively listen without interrupting and avoid arguing or becoming defensive.", "explanation": "OBJ 4.7 (Operational Procedures): When dealing with difficult customers, a professional should actively listen, avoid interrupting, and never argue or become defensive.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 97 } ], "options": [ "Explain the error using advanced technical jargon to establish authority.", "Actively listen without interrupting and avoid arguing or becoming defensive.", "Dismiss the user's concerns to focus entirely on the software code.", "Post a vague complaint about the user on a social media site." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.7-2", "obj": "4.7", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician needs to gather more specific details from a user about how a computer crash occurred. Which communication technique should they use to encourage a detailed explanation?", "correct_short": "Ask open-ended questions to clarify the user's statements.", "explanation": "OBJ 4.7 (Operational Procedures): Asking open-ended questions allows the technician to clarify statements and encourages the user to provide a more detailed scope of the issue.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 98 } ], "options": [ "Argue with the customer to test their knowledge.", "Interrupt the user to save time.", "Ask closed questions that require a simple yes or no.", "Ask open-ended questions to clarify the user's statements." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.7-3", "obj": "4.7", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "An IT specialist is arriving at a corporate banking office to perform on-site repairs. Which professional standard should they prioritize regarding their appearance?", "correct_short": "Match the required attire of the given environment, such as business casual.", "explanation": "OBJ 4.7 (Operational Procedures): IT professionals should present a professional appearance by matching the required attire of the specific environment, whether formal or business casual.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 99 } ], "options": [ "Match the required attire of the given environment, such as business casual.", "Wear highly visible, brightly colored casual clothing.", "Wear an antistatic wrist strap at all times while walking.", "Refuse to follow the dress code if it requires formal wear." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.8-1", "obj": "4.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "An administrator wants to automate the process of mapping network drives for users when they log into a Windows domain. Which file extension is typically used for a PowerShell script?", "correct_short": ".ps1", "explanation": "OBJ 4.8 (Operational Procedures): PowerShell script files use the .ps1 extension and run inside the PowerShell host (powershell.exe or pwsh.exe), which is the standard scripting environment for Windows administration tasks like login drive mapping. .sh is the Linux/Unix Bash shell script extension and will not execute natively on Windows. .js is a JavaScript file, typically run by a browser or Node.js. .py is a Python source file and requires the Python interpreter — none of these are the native PowerShell extension.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 100 } ], "options": [ ".ps1", ".sh", ".js", ".py" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.8-2", "obj": "4.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician is reviewing a script that was designed for a Linux terminal environment. Which of the following file extensions indicates a shell script?", "correct_short": ".sh", "explanation": "OBJ 4.8 (Operational Procedures): The .sh extension identifies a shell script meant to be interpreted by /bin/sh, Bash, or another Unix shell — typically with a shebang line like #!/bin/bash on the first line. .vbs is a VBScript file run by the Windows Script Host. .ps1 is the PowerShell script extension on Windows. .bat is a legacy Windows batch file processed by cmd.exe. All three of those are Windows scripting formats and will not run in a Linux terminal as a shell script.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 101 } ], "options": [ ".vbs", ".ps1", ".bat", ".sh" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.8-3", "obj": "4.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "What is a primary security consideration an IT technician must keep in mind when downloading and executing third-party scripts?", "correct_short": "The script might unintentionally introduce malware or inadvertently change system settings.", "explanation": "OBJ 4.8 (Operational Procedures): When using scripts, especially from external sources, technicians must consider the risk of unintentionally introducing malware or inadvertently making damaging system changes.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 102 } ], "options": [ "Scripts will permanently delete the system BIOS.", "The script requires a corporate-use software license to execute.", "The script might unintentionally introduce malware or inadvertently change system settings.", "Scripts can only run on 32-bit operating systems." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.9-1", "obj": "4.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which technology allows an IT department to remotely monitor, manage, and push automated updates to hundreds of client endpoints simultaneously?", "correct_short": "Remote monitoring and management (RMM)", "explanation": "OBJ 4.9 (Operational Procedures): Remote monitoring and management (RMM) software is designed for enterprise IT support to remotely manage and update multiple endpoints efficiently.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 103 } ], "options": [ "Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)", "Secure Shell (SSH)", "File Transfer Protocol (FTP)", "Remote monitoring and management (RMM)" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.9-2", "obj": "4.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician needs to establish a secure, encrypted command-line connection to a remote Linux server. Which protocol should they use?", "correct_short": "Secure Shell (SSH)", "explanation": "OBJ 4.9 (Operational Procedures): Secure Shell (SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol used to operate network services securely over an unsecured network, typically used for remote command-line login.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 104 } ], "options": [ "Telnet", "Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)", "Secure Shell (SSH)", "Virtual Network Computing (VNC)" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.9-3", "obj": "4.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which protocol is utilized specifically for virtual environments to provide a complete open-source solution for remote access to virtual machines?", "correct_short": "Simple Protocol for Independent Computing Environments (SPICE)", "explanation": "OBJ 4.9 (Operational Procedures): SPICE (Simple Protocol for Independent Computing Environments) is a remote display protocol built specifically for virtual environments to access virtual machine consoles.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 105 } ], "options": [ "Universal Plug and Play (UPnP)", "Simple Protocol for Independent Computing Environments (SPICE)", "Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service (RADIUS)", "Wi-Fi Protected Access 3 (WPA3)" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.10-1", "obj": "4.10", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A student uses a public Artificial Intelligence tool to write their final essay and submits it as their own original work. Under which IT policy would this behavior typically be prohibited?", "correct_short": "Acceptable use policy (AUP) regarding plagiarism", "explanation": "OBJ 4.10 (Operational Procedures): The AUP is the document that defines how an organization's users may use IT systems and services, and modern AUPs explicitly cover AI tools — including bans on academic plagiarism and on representing AI-generated content as original work. An NDA controls disclosure of confidential information to third parties, not classroom honesty. A EULA is the software license between vendor and end user. An SLA is a service-performance contract between provider and customer — none of those regulate the user's submission of AI-generated work as their own.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 106 } ], "options": [ "Non-disclosure agreement (NDA)", "End-user license agreement (EULA)", "Acceptable use policy (AUP) regarding plagiarism", "Service-level agreement (SLA)" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.10-2", "obj": "4.10", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "An Artificial Intelligence model generates a highly convincing but completely fabricated historical event that never actually occurred. What is this AI limitation called?", "correct_short": "Hallucination", "explanation": "OBJ 4.10 (Operational Procedures): A hallucination occurs when an AI confidently generates incorrect, distorted, or entirely fabricated information that is not based on facts.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 107 } ], "options": [ "Application integration", "Hallucination", "Data synchronization", "Algorithmic bias" ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2g-4.10-3", "obj": "4.10", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Why should a company avoid feeding highly sensitive, proprietary corporate data into a public Artificial Intelligence model?", "correct_short": "Public AI models may use the inputted data for training, potentially leaking the private data to other users.", "explanation": "OBJ 4.10 (Operational Procedures): Public AI tools are often trained on the data users input, creating a severe data privacy risk where sensitive corporate information could be inadvertently leaked to external users.", "sources": [ { "source": "synthetic-220-1202", "qnum": 108 } ], "options": [ "Public AI models require a direct hardware connection to the local database server.", "Public AI models are strictly limited to processing only open-source programming code.", "Public AI models may use the inputted data for training, potentially leaking the private data to other users.", "Public AI models automatically delete any data they process after 24 hours." ], "origin": "NotebookLM 220-1202 objective-mapped (generated 2026-05-27)" }, { "id": "c2-os-001", "obj": "1.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which Windows command-line tool displays active network connections and their associated port numbers?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.2: netstat (network statistics) displays active TCP/UDP connections, listening ports, routing tables, and network interface statistics. ipconfig shows IP configuration. nslookup queries DNS. tracert traces the route packets take to a destination host. [OBJ:1.2]", "options": [ "ipconfig", "netstat", "nslookup", "tracert" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 1 } ], "correct_short": "netstat", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-os-002", "obj": "1.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician needs to check the disk for errors and repair them on a Windows system without booting to a recovery environment. Which command should be used?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.2: chkdsk with /f fixes file system errors and /r locates bad sectors and recovers readable data. For the system drive, it schedules the check at next reboot. sfc /scannow checks and repairs Windows system files. diskpart is for disk partitioning. format C: would erase all data on the drive. [OBJ:1.2]", "options": [ "sfc /scannow", "chkdsk C: /f /r", "diskpart", "format C:" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 2 } ], "correct_short": "chkdsk C: /f /r", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-os-003", "obj": "1.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which Windows 10/11 feature allows an administrator to restore the system to a previous working state without affecting personal files?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.3: System Restore uses restore points to roll back system files, registry settings, and installed programs to a previous state, leaving personal files intact. Reset this PC reinstalls Windows. File History backs up personal files only, not system settings. BitLocker is a drive encryption feature. [OBJ:1.3]", "options": [ "Reset this PC", "System Restore", "File History", "BitLocker" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 3 } ], "correct_short": "System Restore", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-001", "obj": "2.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "An employee receives an email appearing to be from their bank, asking them to click a link and verify their account details. Which type of social engineering attack is this?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.4: Phishing uses fraudulent emails that appear to come from legitimate sources to trick users into revealing sensitive information or clicking malicious links. Vishing uses voice calls. Smishing uses SMS text messages. Tailgating is a physical security attack where an unauthorized person follows an authorized person through a secured entrance. [OBJ:2.4]", "options": [ "Vishing", "Phishing", "Smishing", "Tailgating" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 4 } ], "correct_short": "Phishing", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-002", "obj": "2.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician has verified that a workstation is infected with ransomware. What is the NEXT step in the malware removal process?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.4: CompTIA's malware-removal procedure is (1) investigate and verify symptoms — done in this scenario — followed immediately by (2) quarantine the infected system from the network to stop ransomware from spreading to shares or other hosts. After quarantine come disable System Restore, remediate with updated anti-malware, schedule scans, re-enable System Restore, and educate the end user. Running a scan, restoring, or reinstalling before isolation risks further spread. [OBJ:2.4]", "options": [ "Run a full antivirus scan", "Quarantine the infected system from the network", "Reinstall the operating system", "Restore from the most recent backup" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 5 } ], "correct_short": "Quarantine the infected system from the network", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-003", "obj": "2.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which security best practice requires users to log in with the minimum level of permissions needed to perform their job duties?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.6: The principle of least privilege states that users and processes should be granted only the minimum permissions necessary to perform their required functions. This limits the damage that can occur if an account is compromised. Separation of duties divides critical tasks among multiple people. Defense in depth uses multiple security layers. Zero trust assumes no user or device is trusted by default. [OBJ:2.6]", "options": [ "Principle of least privilege", "Separation of duties", "Defense in depth", "Zero trust" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 6 } ], "correct_short": "Principle of least privilege", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-trbl-001", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A Windows 10 computer displays a blue screen of death (BSOD) with a MEMORY_MANAGEMENT error code. What is the most likely cause?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1: The MEMORY_MANAGEMENT stop error typically indicates a problem with physical RAM, such as a faulty module, incompatible memory, or incorrect memory timing settings. While outdated drivers can contribute, the MEMORY_MANAGEMENT code specifically points to hardware-level memory issues. Running Windows Memory Diagnostic or MemTest86 can confirm a RAM fault. [OBJ:3.1]", "options": [ "Corrupt user profile", "Faulty or incompatible RAM", "Outdated device drivers only", "Insufficient disk space" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 7 } ], "correct_short": "Faulty or incompatible RAM", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-trbl-002", "obj": "3.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Which step is performed LAST in the CompTIA best-practice malware removal procedure?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.3: The CompTIA seven-step malware removal process ends with educating the end user about safe computing practices to prevent future infections. The steps are: 1) Identify/research symptoms, 2) Quarantine, 3) Disable System Restore (Windows), 4) Remediate, 5) Schedule scans/run updates, 6) Enable System Restore and create restore point, 7) Educate end user. [OBJ:3.3]", "options": [ "Identify and research malware symptoms", "Quarantine infected systems", "Schedule scans and run updates", "Educate the end user" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 8 } ], "correct_short": "Educate the end user", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-001", "obj": "4.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Before replacing a component inside a desktop computer, a technician should take which safety precaution to prevent damage from electrostatic discharge?", "explanation": "OBJ 4.4: An anti-static (ESD) wrist strap bonded to the computer chassis equalizes the electrical potential between the technician and the system, preventing electrostatic discharge from damaging sensitive components. Carpeted surfaces increase static buildup. Rubber soles provide insulation but do not equalize potential. Keeping the power cable plugged in introduces safety hazards without properly preventing ESD. [OBJ:4.4]", "options": [ "Wear rubber-soled shoes", "Work on a carpeted surface", "Use an anti-static wrist strap grounded to the chassis", "Keep the power cable plugged in for grounding" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 9 } ], "correct_short": "Use an anti-static wrist strap grounded to the chassis", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-002", "obj": "4.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A small business backs up its data every Sunday using a full backup, and uses differential backups Monday through Saturday. If the system fails on Friday, how many backup sets are needed to restore the data?", "explanation": "OBJ 4.3: Differential backups capture all changes since the last full backup. By Thursday, the differential contains everything changed since Sunday. To restore, you only need the most recent full backup (Sunday) plus the most recent differential (Thursday). This is one advantage of differential over incremental backups, which would require the full backup plus every incremental since. [OBJ:4.3]", "options": [ "Six sets (Sunday full + Mon–Thu differentials)", "Two sets (Sunday full + Thursday differential)", "One set (Thursday differential only)", "Five sets (Sunday full + Mon–Wed differentials + Thursday differential)" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 10 } ], "correct_short": "Two sets (Sunday full + Thursday differential)", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-os-004", "obj": "1.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user's computer is running slowly. Which Windows built-in tool shows real-time CPU and RAM usage per process and allows a technician to end unresponsive applications?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.3: Task Manager (Ctrl+Shift+Esc) provides a real-time overview of running processes, CPU, memory, disk, and network usage. It lets technicians end unresponsive processes immediately. Resource Monitor and Performance Monitor offer more detailed metrics but are not the first tool for quick diagnostics. Event Viewer shows system logs, not live usage. [OBJ:1.3]", "options": [ "Resource Monitor", "Task Manager", "Performance Monitor", "Event Viewer" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 11 } ], "correct_short": "Task Manager", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-os-005", "obj": "1.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician wants to identify where a network connection to a remote web server fails along the path. Which command-line tool displays each hop (router) a packet takes to reach the destination?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.4: tracert (Windows) and traceroute (Linux/macOS) send packets with incrementing TTL values to reveal each router hop along the path to a destination, including latency per hop. ping tests connectivity to a single host. nslookup queries DNS. netstat shows active connections. tracert is the go-to tool for isolating where routing fails. [OBJ:1.4]", "options": [ "ping", "nslookup", "tracert", "netstat" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 12 } ], "correct_short": "tracert", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-os-006", "obj": "1.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user installs a new application and can no longer reach a previously accessible local web service on port 8080. No other workstations are affected. What should the technician check FIRST?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.5: When a newly installed application disrupts a previously working service on the same machine, the firewall is the first suspect — the installation may have added, changed, or blocked a firewall rule. Since other workstations are unaffected, the problem is local to this machine. DNS, gateway, and IP conflicts would affect all outbound connectivity, not just one port. [OBJ:1.5]", "options": [ "DNS configuration", "Default gateway", "Windows Defender Firewall rules", "IP address conflict" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 13 } ], "correct_short": "Windows Defender Firewall rules", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-os-007", "obj": "1.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician wants to prevent a suspicious third-party program from launching at Windows startup without uninstalling it. What is the FASTEST way to manage startup programs on Windows 10/11?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.6: On Windows 10/11, Task Manager's Startup tab lists all programs that run at boot and lets you enable or disable them with one click. This is faster than msconfig (which is the traditional method still valid on older Windows). Deleting the desktop shortcut has no effect on startup. Manual registry edits are risky and unnecessary for this task. [OBJ:1.6]", "options": [ "Delete the program's shortcut from the Desktop", "Use Task Manager → Startup tab to disable the program", "Edit the Windows Registry manually", "Use System Configuration (msconfig) → Boot tab" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 14 } ], "correct_short": "Use Task Manager → Startup tab to disable the program", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-os-008", "obj": "1.7", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A Windows 10 workstation shows error 0x80070005 when trying to install Windows updates. What does this error code typically indicate?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.7: Error 0x80070005 means 'Access Denied.' It typically occurs when Windows Update cannot write files due to permission issues — often caused by restrictive security software or corrupted service permissions. Fixes include running Windows Update Troubleshooter, resetting Windows Update components, or checking security software exceptions. Disk space errors and network errors produce different codes. [OBJ:1.7]", "options": [ "Insufficient disk space", "Network connectivity failure", "Access denied — the update service lacks required permissions", "The Windows Update servers are offline" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 15 } ], "correct_short": "Access denied — the update service lacks required permissions", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-os-009", "obj": "1.9", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A macOS user wants to quickly launch applications and search for files without opening Finder. Which built-in macOS feature provides system-wide search and app launch from any screen?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.9: Spotlight (activated with Command+Space or clicking the magnifying glass icon) provides instant system-wide search for apps, files, contacts, emails, web results, and more. Launchpad shows an iOS-style app grid. Mission Control manages windows and virtual desktops. Finder Search is limited to the Finder window. Spotlight is the fastest way to launch apps or find files on macOS. [OBJ:1.9]", "options": [ "Launchpad", "Mission Control", "Spotlight", "Finder Search" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 16 } ], "correct_short": "Spotlight", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-os-010", "obj": "1.10", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user wants to install an app on their Android phone that is not available in the Google Play Store. Which setting must be enabled to allow this?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.10: Android blocks app installations from outside the Play Store by default for security. To sideload an APK, the user must enable 'Install unknown apps' for the specific app or browser being used to install (Settings → Apps → Special app access). USB debugging enables developer tools but does not allow sideloading from the UI. Safe mode disables third-party apps. [OBJ:1.10]", "options": [ "Developer options → USB debugging", "Install unknown apps (allow installation from unknown sources)", "Safe mode", "Android Device Manager" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 17 } ], "correct_short": "Install unknown apps (allow installation from unknown sources)", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-os-011", "obj": "1.11", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A Linux administrator needs to set file permissions so the owner can read, write, and execute; the group can read and execute; others have no permissions. Which chmod command achieves this?", "explanation": "OBJ 1.11: In octal notation: 7=rwx (owner), 5=r-x (group), 0=--- (others). chmod 750 = owner full, group read+execute, others none. chmod 755 gives others read+execute. chmod 644 = owner read/write, group/others read only. chmod 700 = owner full, no group or others. Memorizing rwx=4+2+1 is essential for the A+ exam. [OBJ:1.11]", "options": [ "chmod 755 filename", "chmod 750 filename", "chmod 644 filename", "chmod 700 filename" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 18 } ], "correct_short": "chmod 750 filename", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-004", "obj": "2.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user reports that all of their files have been renamed with an unfamiliar extension and a screen message demands cryptocurrency payment to restore access. What type of malware is this?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.3: Ransomware encrypts victim files and demands payment (usually cryptocurrency) in exchange for the decryption key. It is one of the most destructive malware types for businesses and individuals. Spyware silently collects data. Adware displays unwanted ads. Trojans disguise themselves as legitimate software to gain access. Only ransomware locks/encrypts files and demands payment. [OBJ:2.3]", "options": [ "Spyware", "Adware", "Ransomware", "Trojan" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 19 } ], "correct_short": "Ransomware", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-005", "obj": "2.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A corporate Wi-Fi network authenticates users individually against an Active Directory server using their domain credentials rather than a shared password. Which Wi-Fi security configuration is this?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.2: WPA2-Enterprise uses 802.1X authentication with a RADIUS server to verify individual user credentials. Each user has unique credentials, providing better accountability and allowing access to be revoked per-user. WPA2-Personal (PSK) uses a single shared passphrase for all users. WPA3-SAE is the WPA3 personal mode. WEP is deprecated and insecure. [OBJ:2.2]", "options": [ "WPA2-Personal (PSK)", "WPA3-SAE", "WPA2-Enterprise (802.1X/RADIUS)", "WEP Open Authentication" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 20 } ], "correct_short": "WPA2-Enterprise (802.1X/RADIUS)", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-006", "obj": "2.3", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "Company policy requires that unattended workstations automatically lock after 5 minutes of inactivity. Which Windows mechanism enforces this?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.3: A password-protected screen saver or power plan display-off with lock screen enables automatic workstation locking after a configurable idle period. This is enforced via Group Policy in domain environments ('Interactive logon: Machine inactivity limit'). BitLocker protects data at rest, not idle sessions. Windows Hello is authentication, not automatic locking. Auditing logs events but does not lock sessions. [OBJ:2.3]", "options": [ "BitLocker drive encryption", "Screen saver with password protection enabled, or power plan + lock screen timeout", "Windows Hello facial recognition", "File and folder auditing" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 21 } ], "correct_short": "Screen saver with password protection enabled, or power plan + lock screen timeout", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-007", "obj": "2.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A CEO receives a highly targeted email that appears to come from the board of directors, requesting an urgent wire transfer of $500,000. The email contains the CEO's name and company details. What type of attack is this?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.4: Whaling is a type of spear phishing that specifically targets high-profile executives (C-suite: CEO, CFO, CTO). It uses personal details to appear legitimate and often involves large financial requests or sensitive data. Spear phishing targets specific individuals but not exclusively executives. Vishing uses voice calls. Smishing uses SMS messages. [OBJ:2.4]", "options": [ "Vishing", "Spear phishing", "Whaling", "Smishing" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 22 } ], "correct_short": "Whaling", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-008", "obj": "2.5", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A laptop containing sensitive corporate data is stolen from an employee's car. The drive is protected with BitLocker. What does this protection prevent?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.5: BitLocker (Full Disk Encryption) encrypts the entire drive. Without the encryption key (stored in the TPM or via a recovery key), the drive's data is unreadable even if removed and placed in another machine or accessed via bootable media. It does not prevent the device from being powered on via the normal login screen (that's a separate password). [OBJ:2.5]", "options": [ "The thief from logging in to the laptop", "The thief from reading drive data if the disk is removed or the laptop is booted from external media", "Remote access to the laptop via the internet", "The laptop from being powered on without a fingerprint" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 23 } ], "correct_short": "The thief from reading drive data if the disk is removed or the laptop is booted from external media", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-009", "obj": "2.6", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A Windows domain administrator needs to enforce a minimum password length of 12 characters for all domain users. Which tool is used to configure this company-wide?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.6: Group Policy allows administrators to configure and enforce security settings across all computers and users in an Active Directory domain. Password policies (minimum length, complexity, expiration) are set under Computer Configuration → Windows Settings → Security Settings → Account Policies. Local Security Policy (secpol.msc) only applies to standalone machines. [OBJ:2.6]", "options": [ "Computer Management (compmgmt.msc)", "Group Policy Management Console (GPMC)", "Windows Defender Security Center", "User Accounts (Control Panel)" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 24 } ], "correct_short": "Group Policy Management Console (GPMC)", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-010", "obj": "2.7", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A data center entrance has two sets of electronically controlled locking doors. The outer door must fully close before the inner door can open. What is this physical security control called?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.7: A mantrap (also called an airlock) uses two interlocking doors to prevent tailgating — an attacker following an authorized user through a secured entrance. Only one door can be open at a time. The person in the mantrap can be verified before the second door opens. Faraday cages block electromagnetic signals. Badge readers authenticate but do not prevent tailgating alone. Bollards are physical vehicle barriers. [OBJ:2.7]", "options": [ "Faraday cage", "Mantrap (airlock)", "Badge reader", "Bollard" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 25 } ], "correct_short": "Mantrap (airlock)", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-sec-011", "obj": "2.8", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A company is disposing of old hard drives that stored classified financial records. Which destruction method uses a powerful magnetic field to render all data on the drive completely unrecoverable?", "explanation": "OBJ 2.8: Degaussing exposes a drive to a powerful magnetic field that randomizes all magnetic domains, erasing all data permanently including the firmware. It renders the drive inoperable. Zero-fill overwrites data with zeros but may not reach all sectors on damaged drives and is slower. Low-level formatting is insufficient for classified data. Encryption protects if keys are destroyed but degaussing is more thorough for physical destruction. [OBJ:2.8]", "options": [ "Overwriting with zeros (zero-fill)", "Degaussing", "Low-level formatting", "Encryption then disposal" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 26 } ], "correct_short": "Degaussing", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-trbl-003", "obj": "3.1", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A Windows 10 computer displays 'BOOTMGR is missing. Press Ctrl+Alt+Del to restart' after a failed Windows update. What is the recommended FIRST step to repair this?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.1: BOOTMGR is missing means the Windows Boot Manager file is corrupted or the boot partition is damaged. The standard repair is to boot from a Windows USB/DVD installation media, choose 'Repair your computer,' then run Startup Repair (Automatic Repair). This repairs the boot sector and BCD store without reinstalling Windows. Only reinstall if automated repair fails. [OBJ:3.1]", "options": [ "Reinstall Windows from scratch", "Boot from Windows installation media and run Startup Repair", "Roll back the failed update from Safe Mode", "Replace the hard drive" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 27 } ], "correct_short": "Boot from Windows installation media and run Startup Repair", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-trbl-004", "obj": "3.2", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user reports that a Windows application has frozen and is 'not responding.' After waiting 2 minutes with no improvement, what is the BEST next step?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.2: Task Manager (Ctrl+Shift+Esc) → right-click the frozen process → 'End Task' safely terminates the unresponsive application without affecting other running programs. Restarting the whole computer is excessive and disruptive when only one app is hung. Reinstalling and running sfc are longer-term solutions. Force-ending the process is the appropriate immediate action. [OBJ:3.2]", "options": [ "Restart the entire computer immediately", "Use Task Manager to force-end the unresponsive process", "Uninstall and reinstall the application", "Run sfc /scannow to repair system files" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 28 } ], "correct_short": "Use Task Manager to force-end the unresponsive process", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-trbl-005", "obj": "3.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A user tries to update their iPhone to the latest iOS but receives 'Not enough storage available for this update.' What should the technician recommend FIRST?", "explanation": "OBJ 3.4: iOS OTA (over-the-air) updates require free space for the update package. The fastest fix is to delete large apps, photos, or cached data to free up space, then retry. Alternatively, updating via a computer using Finder (macOS) or iTunes (Windows) is more space-efficient because the update package does not need to be stored on the device. Factory reset is a last resort and data-destructive. [OBJ:3.4]", "options": [ "Perform a factory reset and set up as new", "Free up storage by deleting unused apps and media, or update via Finder/iTunes on a computer", "Replace the iPhone with a model that has more storage", "Disable iCloud and try the update again" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 29 } ], "correct_short": "Free up storage by deleting unused apps and media, or update via Finder/iTunes on a computer", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" }, { "id": "c2-ops-003", "obj": "4.4", "qtype": "Multiple Choice", "question": "A technician is replacing a RAM module inside a desktop computer on an ordinary workbench. Which safety equipment combination BEST prevents damage from electrostatic discharge (ESD)?", "explanation": "OBJ 4.4: An ESD wrist strap connected to the chassis ground equalizes the electrical potential between the technician's body and the equipment, preventing static discharge from damaging sensitive components. An anti-static mat provides a safe work surface. Rubber gloves insulate but do not equalize potential. Non-conductive tools help but do not protect against body static. Both wrist strap AND mat together provide the best ESD protection. [OBJ:4.4]", "options": [ "Rubber gloves and rubber-soled shoes", "Anti-static wrist strap bonded to the chassis ground, and an anti-static mat", "Cotton gloves and a grounded power strip", "Non-conductive tools only" ], "sources": [ { "source": "aplus-adaptive-study", "qnum": 30 } ], "correct_short": "Anti-static wrist strap bonded to the chassis ground, and an anti-static mat", "origin": "aplus-adaptive-study (synthetic Core 2 set)" } ]